2006-10-11 12:53:09 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Astronomy & Space
if humans exist in this universe and man has created math with the same rules. then the answer will be 2. The two most fundamental variables are man and math. If both man and math do exist, but it follows some other completely bizarre line of logic and thought, then the answer might be different, and we might not even use numbers.
simple answers: it depends, or...
in other words: to many variables to predict.
2006-10-11 15:54:32 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hi. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1...............................
2006-10-11 19:55:24 · answer #2 · answered by Cirric 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
pfft. if there is one parallel universes there are an infinite number of universes. and if its infinite, its generally believed that the natural laws are randomly different, so it infinite. it depends on which parallel universe you are in.
2006-10-11 21:12:49 · answer #3 · answered by Micaya 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
11?
2006-10-11 20:01:45 · answer #4 · answered by Allie 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
3?
2006-10-11 20:00:13 · answer #5 · answered by Sami 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The numbers would be transposed, so the answer would be upside down. :0)
2006-10-11 19:58:41 · answer #6 · answered by lollipop 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am there... looking around now... it's 2.
2006-10-11 21:56:52 · answer #7 · answered by Gray 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on which one.
2006-10-11 21:41:28 · answer #8 · answered by whoevermeam 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that is equal to eleven
2006-10-11 19:55:39 · answer #9 · answered by kwing-kwang 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋