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f(x)=x^2 - (27/x^2)
Second derivative gives a point of inflexion at (3,6). dy/dx is positive after 0. Without a change in concavity how can there exist a point of inflexion?

2006-10-11 10:47:42 · 4 answers · asked by shineitallaround 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

f''(x) is what gives you the concavity,
so while f'(x)>0 for x>0,
the second derivative changes signs

2006-10-11 11:16:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The second derivative is f"(x)= 2 - [ 162/(x^4) ]
if f"(x)=0 then you equation should end up in x^4=81 or just to make it easier get the square root to get x^2=9.
therefore x= +3 or -3.

Don't forget that (+)^2 or (-)^2 will give you a +.
The changes of concavity are given by the inflection points. (3;6) is one of them and the other is (-3;6) so in all this segment of the curve there will be no changes of concavity.

Also something you can't miss is the fact that x can't be 0. So x=0 is an asymptote but it still doesn't change the concavity.

2006-10-11 11:01:24 · answer #2 · answered by Sergio__ 7 · 0 0

f(x) = 2x^3 +3x^2 -36x +5 dy/dx = 12x² + 6x - 36 dy/dx = 0 x = 2 , -3 d²y/dx² = 24x + 6 d²y/dx² = 0 x = - a million/4 try the two area of x = - a million/4 say - a million/2 and 0 whilst x = - a million/2 d²y/dx² = - 6 whilst x = 0 d²y/dx² = 6 try exhibits that it is going from - ve to + ve so factor of inflection

2016-12-13 06:36:11 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

The first derivative does not have to change sign at an inflection point. The second derivative does.

2006-10-11 11:02:56 · answer #4 · answered by James L 5 · 0 2

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