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We all know the very famous Euler's Identity
e^iπ + 1 = 0

Now, we transpose 1
e^iπ = -1

We raise both sides to 2
e^2iπ = 1

Now, we raise both sides to the power 1/2iπ.
e^(2iπ/2iπ) =1^(1/2iπ)

Therefore,
e^1 = 1

And,
e = 1

Happy?
^_^

2006-10-11 00:11:36 · 9 answers · asked by kevin! 5 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

9 answers

Your equation e^2iπ = 1 is fine. Your mistake is assuming after the next equation that 1^(1/2iπ) must be 1.

To evaluate 1^x, i.e. to solve 1^x = y, we need to find a value y such that raising it to the power 1/x gives us 1. Certainly, y = 1 will always work, but your other equation e^2iπ = 1 is staring you in the face telling you that other quite unexpected values of y will also work for certain powers. Ignoring this case has given you your impossible conclusion.

2006-10-11 00:49:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 6 0

I can't debate this as I'm not a math major, however after reading the wikipedia article titled "euler's identity" I find that some of your work seems to be off. As π can be calculated somewhat. I don't think this problem is a simple algebra problem as your calculation makes it.

2006-10-11 07:29:08 · answer #2 · answered by Ron Williams 2 · 0 1

that happened the moment you transposed 1 the rest is smoke and mirrors

2006-10-11 07:36:45 · answer #3 · answered by s3n8tr 2 · 0 1

Im returning the question What does it mean???

2006-10-11 07:20:12 · answer #4 · answered by huera 1 · 0 1

raise both sides to two....the second step....it looks suspect to me.

2006-10-11 07:22:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

umm math is hard and if you say its right i agree

2006-10-11 07:13:09 · answer #6 · answered by LadieVamp 5 · 0 1

I flunked that one.

2006-10-11 07:17:02 · answer #7 · answered by Captleemo 3 · 0 1

where is the fallacy?

2006-10-11 07:40:07 · answer #8 · answered by openpsychy 6 · 0 1

Please be clear about ur question.

2006-10-11 09:28:19 · answer #9 · answered by AJJAEC 2 · 0 0

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