English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

22 answers

We would now all be speaking German or Japanese

2006-10-10 22:27:01 · answer #1 · answered by Michael E 4 · 1 3

Well, France didn't really have a choice in the matter, as Germany was intent on invasion and on making Paris the jewel in Hitler's crown. If Britain, with few resources, and a weakened military, had not stood up to Hitler, then tyranny might have come to the West much sooner than it has. Certainly without Britain's brave stand the U.S. would have come into the war too late. As it is the war was more difficult and there was more loss of life because America held to neutrality for so long.

Now to get personal. If you or I were not of Indo-European stock, and even if we were but had mental defects, or physical defects, or if the Nazi regime in any way felt our thinking was dangerous to it's continuation, then had we lived then under Hitler, we might have found ourselves in the gas chamber, or worked to death, or put into a "special" living situation like many who wound up in those situations during WWII. Since it was an earlier generation, we might not even have been born.

People always rise up against tyranny at some point, but the cost of coming under tyranny and the cost of coming out from under it are both very great. The world never recovers fully.

And Hitler would have wiped the entire Judeo-Christian ethic off the map. And I am going to make an assertion some will hate, but just try to disprove it if you think I'm wrong--every nation which has followed the Judeo-Christian ethic has been strong and viable and with more freedoms for the individual of the society, to the degree which the society has followed it.

Had Hitler won, America would not have been a refuge to flee to from tyranny. Now we are allowing tyranny in. So we may know very soon just what it would be like had Britain not declared war on Germany in 1939.

Personally, I think it would be a living hell of a society.

2006-10-11 00:57:09 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Realistically, it would be almost the same as it is now. History has shown that, particularly in land-locked Europe, most nations that have been 'invaded' and 'colonised' eventually undergo a substantial revolt against the occupying force. As WWII started post-industrial revolution, there was very little chance of Germany managing to establish it's 'living space' (as was the plan of the Chancellor in the first instance): perhaps the Czech Republic, the former Yugoslavia, Austria and parts of northern France might have tolerated the suppressors for longer than other regions (based on their economic standings at the time and the collusion between predominantly Christian ideals) but I don't think this would have lasted too long.

Poland, certainly, would have taken its cue from Russia on the Eastern front, causing the Germans to redeploy Western forces and weakening its stand in what it might have considered more stable countries. However, one thing remains true - no matter what Germany had done, the Japanese bombing of Pearl Harbour was the catalyst that brought about the beginning of the end. It's not really clear what role the Nazis had in this, but by allying itself to the occupying forces in Europe, Japan made any possible resolution which would have viewed the Nazis as successful as untenable.

One other thing to add - the remit of the Nazi party changed so quickly and dramatically between 39 & 41 that the original intentions were lost: the majority of external support the Germans received at the beginning of the war (Franco in Spain springs to mind) wavered far quicker than could have been foreseen. The simple answer to your question is: if Britain and France had not declared war on Germany in 1939, they would have done so in 1940, or 1941 and so on. It's still amazing to this day to consider that the world cannot unite under the desire to cure aids, or erradicate starvation, but under the threat of invasion and genocide the world can.

2006-10-10 22:42:22 · answer #3 · answered by PETER G 3 · 1 0

I doubt it would have been very different because I suspect Hitler would have pushed Britain and France into war even if they'd chickened out when Germany invaded Poland. The world would have been different dramatically only if Britain, France and the U.S. had not been Russia's allies in 1945. Where then would the Iron Curtain have fallen?

2006-10-11 00:41:49 · answer #4 · answered by camdenjohn2003 2 · 0 0

During the first months of the war, there were only a few see battles between Nazi Germany on the one hand and Britain and France on the other hand. During one of these battles, a British "unsinkable" navy vessel got sunked. Latter, during the Blitz, the (British) Royal Air Force did manage to down many of Nazi Germany's military airplanes. On a later stage of the war, British and French ground troops contributed to the victory of the Allies, but that was done together with Soviet and American troops, together with the help of (nationalist. royalist and Communist) undergrounds. So the question is too complicated to answer precisely.

2006-10-11 00:22:10 · answer #5 · answered by Avner Eliyahu R 6 · 0 0

Hitler was intent on taking over the world. Britain and France would have been involved sooner or later. Even in his madness, Hitler feared the outcome of attempting to land a military force on England so, he turned his attention to Russia which was just as disastrous because the logistics of keeping supply lines flowing and protected over such great distances in such variable weather required almost as many personnel and resouces as were used on the front lines. Even the Russian army ran out of food, supplies and ammunition at times.

Hitler would have failed and the world would be the same.

2006-10-11 05:44:25 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Not that much I reckon, Hitler would still need to knock out France to allow his attention to turn to Russia - to avoid a war on two fronts that he felt cost Germany victory in WW1. Therefore it is likely that by 1942/3 Hitler would still have launched a pre-emptive attack on France, therefore dragging Britain in.

Given the endemic weakness of French Army command, it is unlikely the outcome of the war in France would have been massively different from 1940. The British Expeditionary Force may have likely been better equipped but given the superior quality of the Wehrmacht and Luftwaffe it is hard to see them effecting much of a difference.

One speculation (amongst many!) is that if Japan had stayed on its course of war in 1941, Britain may have been less able, or willing, to involve themselves in a European war. Especially if Chamberlain or maybe Halifax was PM, they may have been more likely ot negotiate a European settlement.

2006-10-11 05:02:44 · answer #7 · answered by Dolphin76 3 · 0 0

that would really depend on the usa,if pearl harbour did not come about would they even have got involved,would they have sat by on the fence waiting for a direct attack on them before getting involved,nothing new there.i think history would be much the same as britain would not have bowed to any invasion from germany and i think the outcome would have been the same just a lot more lifes lost and a lot more years at war.

2006-10-14 06:58:24 · answer #8 · answered by jj1874 2 · 0 0

No diference except Germany would have had its empire back intact like it had before world war one. Hitler never wanted war on Britain, he admired our armed forces and empire. He also knew he couldnt invade Britain, the so called battle of Britain was a show of strength, all he wanted was living space for his people in the east.
He might have invaded France though.

2006-10-10 22:51:47 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

sure. Undistracted by using the conflict of the Atlantic and the North African marketing campaign,Germany could very practically genuinely have defeated Russia in 1941 or 1942. on top of problems with continental Europe and unfastened to strengthen its V weapons,the Germans could ultimately have one that ought to attain united statesa. (which became already being equipped whilst the conflict resulted in 1945).With its cities being destroyed by using ICBMs against which the rustic had no defence and no thank you to resign,eventual conquest and administration of North united statesa. by using Nazi Germany could have been inevitable. So,a British resign in summer season 1940 could have meant an Axis victory in WW2.

2016-10-16 01:46:44 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

France was already invaded.
British was next target; (Just an island).
Should be different if Russian neither Canada and USA would not get in.
Would be absolutely different if UK and France said something during Poland invasion.

2006-10-11 00:20:33 · answer #11 · answered by carlos_frohlich 5 · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers