1 is equal to 2, dats rite, watch..
1-1=0 n 2-2=0 so (1-1)=(2-2). ok?
so take common parenthesis.....
1(1-1)=2(1-1)...rite?
eliminate (1-1) on both sides...n whatcha got
1=2.
hee hee this is quite funny rite? any objections?
2006-10-10 22:13:28 · 16 answers · asked by Neo 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
guys! this question is just for fun so just leave a comment, alrite?
2006-10-10 22:36:14 · update #1
you may only eliminate the (1-1) on both sides by dividing it out. since (1-1) = 0, you would be dividing by 0, which as any good mathematician knows is "UNDIFINED" , hence your so called proof is "BOGUS" & 1 is not & will never be equal to 2.
2006-10-10 23:18:25 · answer #1 · answered by charlesawolverton 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
that is not a real proof.
you do inside the parenthesis first which would be 1(0)=2(0) from there you multiply the 1*0 and the 2*0 which would show you that 0=0. Nice try though.
2006-10-10 22:16:42 · answer #2 · answered by Southie9 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I guess u proved that 0=0 rather than 1=2
2006-10-11 00:10:52 · answer #3 · answered by anjali 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your third step, 1(1-1)=2(1-1), does not make sense.
In order to maintain an equation, whatever you do to one side, you MUST do the SAME to the other side. You multiplied one side by 1 and the other side by 2. Now, since you did different things to both sides, that thing above is NOT an equation anymore. Also, you can't divide both sides by (1-1), because it equals zero.
2006-10-10 23:04:09 · answer #4 · answered by عبد الله (ドラゴン) 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is a flaw. In the last but one step you are cancelling or dividing both sides of the equation with [1-1]. The value of this is zero. Division by zero is not permitted. You did a division which was not permitted. Hence you got an absurd result.
2006-10-10 23:09:00 · answer #5 · answered by openpsychy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The error is in dividing by 1-1. 1-1=0, so when you eliminate 1-1, you are dividing by 0, which produces indeterminate results.
Had me guessing for a while though...
2006-10-10 22:18:02 · answer #6 · answered by tgypoi 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I don't find it funny because your reasonings and explanations is wrong at the final step. You get 0=0 obviously. Maybe you should try to find some question that is more challenging to the brain. A think a 10 year old kid can spot your mistake
2006-10-10 22:24:35 · answer #7 · answered by khotl73 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
since 1-1=0 we can' divide both sides by it because it will lead to a indeterminate result.so the proof is not correct
1 is not equal to 2.
2006-10-11 03:05:36 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The objection is you have removed (1-1) from both sidesin multiplication. Thiis is you divided by (1-1). division by 1-1 is not permitted as it is zero so it is the ground for objection.
2006-10-10 22:16:06 · answer #9 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
2=3=4=5=6=7=8=9=10...etc.
2006-10-10 22:17:09 · answer #10 · answered by RIDLEY 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋