2006-10-10 15:21:43 · 5 answers · asked by parco 1 in Home & Garden ➔ Other - Home & Garden
I assume the buyer could take over the lease or contract a new one. In my experience a Land Contract is a term used in various parts of the country. I call it "owner held mortgage"
Currently I live in a "park" in a "mobile" and pay lot rent. I own the mobile and can sell it,,,even holding the mortgage, but the new owner, as in your case likely, will have to negotiate with the LAND owner also.
Steven Wolf
2006-10-10 15:28:17 · answer #1 · answered by DIY Doc 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2
2016-07-18 19:54:01 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The criminal professional is taking an extremely volatile shortcut. The words of the written land settlement contract will point out what could desire to transpire. keeping off probate in such monetary concerns isn't smart. The sources of the deceased must be in touch in such a transactions. in basic terms the authorized sources executor can sign off on something concerning to the deceased. If the call remains on your call, you may hire the premises to the 'new purchasers' till the valuables is settled. After contract, there is not something combating you from retroactively crediting their hire funds to them as funds against any land settlement you strengthen with the hot purchasers. in case you have transferred call to the now deceased, do not even think of approximately any rapid decision. In one among those concern, the home is an asset of the valuables (fairness or not) and must be dealt with for this reason.
2016-10-16 01:33:50 · answer #3 · answered by merkel 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Rent-To-Own Homes - http://RentToOwnHome.uzaev.com/?EeLs
2016-07-11 21:44:48 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2006-10-10 15:28:06 · answer #5 · answered by KT 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋