Is it grammatically correct?
Many thanks.
2006-10-10 10:21:05 · 10 answers · asked by Become Not (Band) 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
"It has always been the same." is a complete sentence, so I would say, yes, it is.
It's can mean either 'It is', or 'It has'. You can say, "She's been the president for four years." and that would be correct. This is not different.
2006-10-10 10:28:51 · answer #1 · answered by Answer Schmancer 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The sentence is not grammatically correct.
It's always been the same = It has always been the same.
The contraction it's should be a contraction of 'it is' not 'it has'.
2006-10-10 10:28:46 · answer #2 · answered by luperith 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes it has a subject, predicate, verb, and a complete thought
If u do the punctuation correctly it would be grammatically correct
2006-10-10 10:24:11 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Certainly it is. The contraction form [apostrophe - s] can mean "Is" or "has".
"He's tried everything else, now he's asking Yahoo!"
First one - "has"; second one, "is"
You COULD restate to even further confuse the rookie grammarians above, saying, " 'Twere ever so."
2006-10-10 10:31:16 · answer #4 · answered by gabluesmanxlt 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, it has a subject and a verb to make it a simple sentence.
2006-10-10 10:27:20 · answer #5 · answered by ♥Roberta. 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it has always beenthe same is correct
2006-10-10 10:24:40 · answer #6 · answered by raj 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes, it's absolutely fine.
2006-10-10 10:44:34 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would change it to
It has always been the same.
2006-10-10 10:29:59 · answer #8 · answered by miamac49616 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
no. "it's" is "it is" you would have to make it "it has" for it to be correct.
2006-10-10 10:24:18 · answer #9 · answered by Brandy N 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes, it's can mean "it is" or "it has"
2006-10-10 10:36:27 · answer #10 · answered by McDuck 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋