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My grandfather learened a proof that 1+1=3. Sadly he died before i was born and i was not able to ask him what the proof was. does anyone know of this proof. I know the proof for 1=0. i am not asking for that,

2006-10-09 17:07:19 · 9 answers · asked by mrada6 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

9 answers

Start with: a and b are two real numbers and a=b
Multiply both sides by a:
a^2=ab
Subtract b^2 from both sides:
a^2-b^2=ab-b^2
Distribute:
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b)
*Divide both sides by (a-b)
a+b=b
Substitute a for b:
a+a=a
2a=a
Divide both sides by a:
2=1
Add one to both sides:
3=2
Switch sides and rewrite:
1+1=3

*(a-b)=0, so dividing by (a-b) gets you 0/0, which is undefined.

2006-10-09 17:15:39 · answer #1 · answered by mediaptera 4 · 0 0

well if you look at it this way 1 +1 wouldnt necessarily = 3 either it could iqual 4,5,6,7 etc. take 1 male and 1 female and put them together and with in a short time you will end up with 3 you normally end up with at least 1 baby so the 1 and the 1 ended up being 3. Truthfully I have no idea how 1 +1 could iqual 3 unless the 1's were not whole 1's and you do some rounding off. Math is not one of my subjects. you could also look at it this way too . you can have 1 car and 1 boat which iqual 5 tires including the spare. except if the boat is on a trailer then you would have 9 tires including the spare for the car and 10 if you have a spare for the trailer. If someone were to all of a sudden change the numerical system I think that would screw things up quiet a bit. So maybe we should just leave 1+1= 2 .

2006-10-09 17:25:59 · answer #2 · answered by hersheynrey 7 · 0 0

I'm gonna answer to the string posted by Nikitty.

Her theory is that 1 = 0, through a series of x and y equations.

But there is an eventual error when she divides.

(1) x = y
(2) x - y + y = y
(3) (x - y + y)/(x - y) = y/(x - y)
(4) 1 + y/(x - y) = y/(x - y)
(5) 1 = 0

Now look carefully at the first equation, x = y. After you subtract y from both sides you get x - y = 0. On equation (3) she divides both sides by x - y. Now we all know that dividing any amount by 0 is literally undefined. So how can that prove stand?

EDIT: The same also goes for the post by mediaptera. It seems that dividing by 0 is the ultimate challenge for such a equation.

2006-10-09 20:04:46 · answer #3 · answered by xxmizuraxx 2 · 1 0

Let x=y. Then

x - y + y = y

x - y + y y
--------- = ---
x-y x-y

y y
1 + --- = ---
x-y x-y

1 = 0

Now we know that 1 = 1, so add the following three equations together:

1 = 0
1 = 1
1 = 1

On the right is 1+1, and on the left is 3 ones, and 3 ones make 3.

2006-10-09 17:12:23 · answer #4 · answered by Nikitty 2 · 0 0

It all depends on what you are talking about ... apples, potatoes, ... ?
Under certain conditions, 1 male + 1 female = 3 as 1 male + 1 female + 1 child

That is all I can think of ...

2006-10-09 17:14:14 · answer #5 · answered by sebourban 4 · 1 0

I know that!

1 + 1 = 3.
For very large values of ones...

2006-10-09 17:11:08 · answer #6 · answered by just curious 4 · 1 0

actually it does equal 3 ... Drexel University has proven it does

2015-11-19 15:59:41 · answer #7 · answered by Dennis 1 · 0 0

...just so you know:1+1=2...not 3...

2006-10-09 17:09:20 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

it doesnt. so stop asking people for proof

2006-10-09 18:49:10 · answer #9 · answered by SKATER2 1 · 0 0

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