2006-10-09 13:07:52 · 8 answers · asked by ghislain t 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
Last names (or Sir names) were not commonly used until well after 1160 A.D. which is of course more than 1,160 years after Jesus died. Prior to this time, if there was ever any confusion with another persons name, then the place they were from, what they did as a trade or some other title - was added to their name. For example: Joseph the carpenter Joseph of Arimathaea. Mary Magdalene was actually Mary of Magdala, which was where she was from. This is why Jesus was called Jesus of Nazareth. Pontius Pilate was really Pontius 'the firm,' which is what 'Pilate' means in Latin. This is how many of you got your last names. Trades - Tailor, Cooper, Carpenter, Baker, Mason, Smith, etc. Places - Johnston (John's Town), York, Carlton, London, Middleton, etc. I think you get the idea!
So, What WAS Jesus' last name? He did not have one.
2006-10-09 13:10:50 · answer #1 · answered by enterprise17 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He doesn't need a last name. I never heard anyone ask, "Jesus Christ who?"
2006-10-09 20:14:15 · answer #2 · answered by Patti C 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Surnames didnt hit the western world until about 1000 years ago.
He was Jesus son of Joseph.
2006-10-09 20:11:54 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Junior
2006-10-09 20:10:44 · answer #4 · answered by mobileminiatures 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is Jesus of Nazareth because back then they went by where they were born
2006-10-09 20:14:18 · answer #5 · answered by kc m 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
christ
2006-10-09 20:09:34 · answer #6 · answered by ♥MoMo♥ 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Almighty.
Nah seriously, it's pretty much just "of Nasareth".
Back then that's how they did it.
2006-10-09 20:10:24 · answer #7 · answered by tonybgoode 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
holy
2006-10-09 20:09:31 · answer #8 · answered by ;p 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋