Can the fielder intentionally fumble the ball without dropping it in order to trick the baserunner into tagging up too soon?
2006-10-09 08:33:29 · 12 answers · asked by Bob B 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
In the outfield the answer is yes, on the infield no - the infield fly rule is called into effect.
Here is the description from mlb.com of infield fly rule :
"An INFIELD FLY is a fair fly ball (not including a line drive nor an attempted bunt) which can be caught by an infielder with ordinary effort, when first and second, or first, second and third bases are occupied, before two are out. The pitcher, catcher and any outfielder who stations himself in the infield on the play shall be considered infielders for the purpose of this rule.
When it seems apparent that a batted ball will be an Infield Fly, the umpire shall immediately declare “Infield Fly” for the benefit of the runners. If the ball is near the baselines, the umpire shall declare “Infield Fly, if Fair.”
The ball is alive and runners may advance at the risk of the ball being caught, or retouch and advance after the ball is touched, the same as on any fly ball. If the hit becomes a foul ball, it is treated the same as any foul.
If a declared Infield Fly is allowed to fall untouched to the ground, and bounces foul before passing first or third base, it is a foul ball. If a declared Infield Fly falls untouched to the ground outside the baseline, and bounces fair before passing first or third base, it is an Infield Fly.
Rule 2.00 (Infield Fly) Comment: On the infield fly rule the umpire is to rule whether the ball could ordinarily have been handled by an infielder—not by some arbitrary limitation such as the grass, or the base lines. The umpire must rule also that a ball is an infield fly, even if handled by an outfielder, if, in the umpire’s judgment, the ball could have been as easily handled by an infielder. The infield fly is in no sense to be considered an appeal play. The umpire’s judgment must govern, and the decision should be made immediately.
When an infield fly rule is called, runners may advance at their own risk. If on an infield fly rule, the infielder intentionally drops a fair ball, the ball remains in play despite the provisions of Rule 6.05 (L). The infield fly rule takes precedence. "
Hope that clarifies.
2006-10-09 08:54:04 · answer #1 · answered by Special Ed 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Where are all of these "yes" answers coming from? Do you people just make things up out of your head as truth? The CORRECT answer, (and I know this is redundant as it was mentioned a couple times before), is that as soon as the ball touches the fielder's glove the runner is free to take off. So bobbling a ball only gives the baserunner more time to score.
2006-10-09 14:16:52 · answer #2 · answered by J B 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I'm going to assume you are talking about outfielders when you are talking about runners tagging up. Yeah, he could intentionally drop the ball, but then he would be allowing the guy who hit the ball to get on base. Also, if the fielder intentionally dropped the ball, he would then have to pick it up before he set himself to throw, which would make it that much more difficult to throw out the runner.
The only time I have ever seen an outfielder intentionally drop a ball is if there is a runner on third, less than two outs, the fielder's team is leading by one run and the ball is going to land in foul territory. If the fielder catches the ball, the runner on third could tag up and score the tying run, so the fielder could intentionally let the ball drop to prevent that from happening.
2006-10-09 09:06:07 · answer #3 · answered by milerman01 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The runner can go as soon as the ball touches the fielder, no one would be fooled by the fielder bobbling it. The runner isn't watching the fielder anyway, he is watching the third base coach who will tell him when to go. Even if the runner is watching the ball himself, he would already be running and wouldn't see the fielder bobble the ball. The people who imply in any way that this would work have no idea what they are talking about.
2006-10-09 08:57:20 · answer #4 · answered by snoboarder2k6 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, but if he bobbles it purposly to try and "fool the runner" the runner doesn't have to go, or he can go back, not to mention if he drops the ball that means another baserunner and no out.
The opposite is true, when a fielder knows it is going to hit the ground in front of him, he can fake lining the ball up to be caught in the air to make the runner hesitate before advancing. Clifford Floyd of the Mets tends to do that to keep runners close to second and give him a better chance to gun them down if they go for home from second.
2006-10-09 08:39:37 · answer #5 · answered by vertical732 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It wouldn't matter. The baserunner can tag up as soon as the ball hits the fielder's glove. So bobbling it won't matter, except to the runner as it will give him the advantage.
2006-10-09 08:38:56 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
While it is true that a the runner can advance after the ball touches the field on any part of his body, bobbling the ball would still probably work if the runner is watching the play, in that few people are probably familiar with that rule.
2006-10-09 08:50:26 · answer #7 · answered by pdigoe 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Its not when it is caught be when it is touched so once the fielder touches the ball the runner can tag and go.
2006-10-09 08:40:07 · answer #8 · answered by Larry the Cucumber 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
he can do whatevere he wants. but if he drops it thers no catch and all runners are safe if they're on the base.
2006-10-12 14:00:54 · answer #9 · answered by Rene C 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
dont know im confused
2006-10-09 08:36:03 · answer #10 · answered by CHASITY L 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋