Two masses, M1 and M2, are initially separated by a distance, d. A force exists between them that is proportional to the product of the masses and DIRECTLY proportional to the square of their separation, with a proportionality constant C.
F = C (M1) (M2) d^2
How long does it take for the separation to become infinite? Classical physics only, please.
2006-10-09
08:10:13
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3 answers
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asked by
David S
5
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics
This isn't a homework problem. I'm not taking any physics classes at the moment. I'm just curious.
The force is a repulsive central force, without curl, directly proportional to the square of the separation of the masses. I think the separation does go to infinity in finite time, assuming the rules of classical mechanics.
2006-10-09
13:57:06 ·
update #1
Let the masses be m and n, just to be neat.
F = C mn d^2
The force is related to the acceleration as
F = (m+n)a
The acceleration, really, is what counts, so
a = C r^2 mn/(m+n)
Define a new constant:
K = Cmn/(m+n)
Then, a = K r^2
da/dr = 2 K r
dv/dt = a = K r^2
We're trying to find r(t). But it looks like it's going to be a while before we get there.
r = (da/dr)/(2K)
r = [(dv/dt)/K]^(1/2)
a = (da/dr)^2/(4K)
(da/dr)^2 - 4Ka = 0
So, how do you solve a nonlinear first order diffeq of the form:
(y')^2 + Qy = 0
2006-10-09
19:07:57 ·
update #2