please........
2006-10-09 04:56:18 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
as we know
tan2A=2tanA/1-tan^2A
=2/[(1-tan^2A)/tan2a]
=2/(cotA-tanA)
2006-10-09 05:04:22 · answer #1 · answered by Amarbir Singh 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think you mean to say
tan 2A = 2/(cotA- tan A)
Tan 2A = 2 tan A/(1-tan^A) (using tan 2A FORMULA)
= 2/(Cot A(1- Tan^2 A)
= 2/(cot A - cot A tan A tan A)
= 2/(cot A - Tan A)
QED
2006-10-09 05:01:07 · answer #2 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Using identity tan(A+B)=(tan A + tan B)/(1-tan A tan B), with B=A, you get
tan(2A) = 2 tan A/(1-(tan A)^2)
Divide top and bottom by tan A:
= 2 / (1/tan A - tan A )
Use cot A = 1/tan A:
= 2 / (cot A - tan A)
2006-10-09 05:00:52 · answer #3 · answered by James L 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
first define what is B
actualy instead of B there should be A
proof is
tan2A=2tanA/1-tan^2A=2/cotA-tanA by dividing numerator and denominator by tanA
and by using cotA=1/tanA
2006-10-09 05:04:41 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
you have made a mistake in asking question. it should be .
2tan A on left side and on the right 2/(cot A-tan A).
2006-10-09 05:27:50 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
l.s={(sinb/cosb)+(cosb+sinb)}/(sinb/cosb... get a user-friendly denominator by utilising multiplying the two denominators to get {(sin^2b+cos^2b)/cosbsinb}/(sinb/cosb) observe how sin^2b + cos^2b turns to one million ---> (one million/cosbsinb )/sinbcosb then you truthfully shrink it by utilising dividing by utilising the denominator to get (turn and multiply the denomintor (sinbcosb) you will get one million/sin^2b ----> that's csc^2B from time to time you will desire to paintings on the two facets yet this one, you purely had to do the left area ..start up with the area that has extra stuff and simplify it as much as you are able to. solid luck with trig...it takes a soldier to ace it
2016-12-16 04:45:10 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋