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If length of a position vector for an object is constant, then the position vector must be perpendicular to the velcocity vector.

Can you prove this using the dot product?
Umm.... ???

2006-10-08 10:33:18 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

Let the position vector, as a function of time, be given by P(t) = (x(t),y(t),z(t)). Then its velocity vector is given by V(t)=(x'(t),y'(t),z'(t)).

Then its length is L(t)=sqrt(x(t)^2 + y(t)^2 + z(t)^2).

Because its length is constant, the derivative of the length, as a function of t, must be zero.

That derivative is

1/2*(x(t)^2 + y(t)^2 + z(t)^2)^(-1/2) * 2(x(t)x'(t) + y(t)y'(t) + z(t)z'(t)).

However, this is just [P(t) dot V(t)] / L(t), and since this must be equal to zero, it follows that P(t) dot V(t) = 0, so P(t) and V(t) must be orthogonal.

2006-10-08 10:37:34 · answer #1 · answered by James L 5 · 0 0

If the position vector length is constant, then V(t)∙P(t) must be zero and that can only happen if the two are at right angles.


Doug

2006-10-08 10:38:56 · answer #2 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

I tried, but I just keep going in circles !!

2006-10-08 10:46:03 · answer #3 · answered by mdv 1 · 0 0

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