2006-10-08 09:49:59 · 7 answers · asked by racheldawnsmith311 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
f(1) = 3(1) - 2 = 1
g(0) = (-0)2 + 3(0) - 2 = -2
so f(1) - g(0) = 1 - (-2) = 3
I hope this helps
2006-10-08 09:54:44 · answer #1 · answered by Galaxy D 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1
2006-10-08 09:52:00 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe the second equation should read
g(x) = -x^2 + 3x -2.
Anyway, just plug in the values of x=1 into f and x=0 into g.
We get
f(1) = 3(1) -2 = 3 - 2 = 1;
and
g(0) = -(0)^2 + 3(0) -2 = -0 + 0 - 2 = -2.
Therefore,
f(1) - g(0) = 1 - (-2) = 1 + 2 = 3.
2006-10-08 10:13:27 · answer #3 · answered by bassbredrin 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
simply substitute:
f(1) = 3(1) - 2 = 3-2 = 1
g(0) = -(0)^2 + 3(0) -2 = -2
So, f(1) - g(0) = 1 - (-2) = 3
(By the way I think you meant -x^2 not -x2 in your g(x) equation up above)
2006-10-08 09:51:26 · answer #4 · answered by djc 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
evaluate f(x) and g(x) on the indicated factors (discover f(a million) and g(0)), then subtract the fee of g from f. f(a million) = 3(a million) -2 = a million g(0) = -(0)^2 + 3(0) - 2 = -2 f(a million) - g(0) = 3 (a million) - (-2) = 3
2016-11-27 01:17:56 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
f(1) = 3(1) - 2 = 1
g(0) = -(0)^2 + 3(0) - 2 = -2
so f(1) - g(0) = 1 - (-2) = 1 + 2 = 3
2006-10-08 09:57:00 · answer #6 · answered by love_justiphena 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
answer=3
2006-10-08 09:54:16 · answer #7 · answered by bruinfan 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋