Pretend that the batter hits a deep drive that is hanging around the foul pole and in the hype of things he rounds first heading towards second, but the runner already on first saw it as foul and he skimps back to first, and the batter runs past the runner on first, and the official rule is FOUL. Is there an out?
2006-10-08 06:57:07 · 10 answers · asked by laxeroflax04 2 in Sports ➔ Baseball
nope.....
2006-10-08 06:58:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Until the ball passes first or third base, it can roll foul, roll back fair, roll foul again, bounce fair, and so on. The position of the ball -- in or over fair or foul territory -- is what matters when it either comes to rest, or a defensive player fields it, before it passes first or third.
2016-03-28 01:46:43 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Oh sweet heart you do have alot to learn about baseball!!!
A foul ball is just that! It's a do over just like somone else said.
Nothing else. If the batter keeps running, then he/she is a fool!!
They are just wasting time and energy. They have to go back to the plate and try to get a hit.
You are not allowed to keep going and call it a hit if it's not!!
2006-10-08 07:07:44 · answer #3 · answered by None of your F***ing business 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
no because since it was a foul ball the play is considered dead and the must return to home
2006-10-08 11:13:58 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why would he be stupid enough to pass him? No, he is not out, a foul is kind of like a do over. Everything goes back to where it was before that pitch was made.
2006-10-08 06:59:35 · answer #5 · answered by Krysta M 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No, a foul ball is a dead ball anything that happens after that is nothing, unless its a fragrant foul
2006-10-08 07:43:45 · answer #6 · answered by Ricky Lee 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
no...the foul ball negates anything that happened on the play.
2006-10-08 06:59:05 · answer #7 · answered by stang_steed05 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
no the ball has to stay in play for there to be an out, i e if someone caught it
2006-10-08 06:59:21 · answer #8 · answered by gallow 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no, because the ball was already foul and its already dead, so it doesn't count.
2006-10-08 11:57:13 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no
2006-10-09 07:51:26 · answer #10 · answered by smitty 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋