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Is this true or false, and why?

If f '(c) and g '(c) are zero and h(x)= f(x) g(x), then h '(c) = 0.

2006-10-08 06:15:49 · 2 answers · asked by pantera 2 in Education & Reference Homework Help

2 answers

It's true. Use the product rule:
h'(x) = f(x)g'(x) + g(x)h'(x).
Now plug c in for x:
h'(c) = 0 + 0 = 0.

2006-10-08 06:47:54 · answer #1 · answered by steiner1745 7 · 0 0

It's true. You can think of f'(c) as the slope of f(x) at c. The slope is zero. So if h(x) is the two graphs combined and they each have zero slope at c, then h(x) has zero slope at c.

2006-10-08 13:22:38 · answer #2 · answered by Alan J 3 · 0 0

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