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bearing in mind that Africa is where the human race originated, and all humans started more or less at the same starting point

2006-10-07 11:22:25 · 24 answers · asked by dandyl 7 in Social Science Sociology

24 answers

Sociologically speaking, this is an ignorant question.

As sociology is defined as the study of social interactions, why would you identify "the white race" as being "advanced"?

If you are solely comparing "the white race" and "the black race", are you accounting for those of us who have slave blood but "master" appearance in our pedigree, and vice versa? Alas, that is a microscopic point, but who is a purebred specimen, anyway?

Back to my initial answer, when studying the social interactions of any group, who has the right to designate better or worse?

Sociologically speaking, don't be so superior.

2006-10-07 11:43:12 · answer #1 · answered by sendmedaisies 3 · 1 2

If you are asking this question on a global level ie "why hasn't africa advanced as much as white western countries" the answer is fairly simple. Western countries have turned most African countries upside down. Look back through Africa's history and you will find that Western meddeling has been the cause of it's biggest and most horrific turmoils. The massacare in Rwanda for example was Germany, Belgium, and France's doing (all other Western states played a role too).

If this question is being asked on a domestic level i.e. "why has the white race advanced more than the black race in the US" the answer is also simple. The white man has been keeping the black man down. As sterotypical as that sounds it's the truth. A large percent of the black community is living at or below the poverty line. Their schools are awful and it's extremely hard to get ahead. White leaders do not care about poor people. And a large percentage of those poor folk are black.


Considering that blacks started as slaves in the country and now are in politics and CEOs of giant multinational coroporations, I wouldn't go so far as to they that they are not as "advanced" as white folk.

2006-10-07 11:42:03 · answer #2 · answered by jewels_46_2 3 · 0 2

I have also and continously asked myself this question and I remember that many years ago there was a university teacher by the name of Shockly or Shockley, who I think taught in the University of California. He made a great survey investigation and came up with the result of comparing white americans and black americans, that whites were 15 % more inteligent than blacks.

Of course when he tried to publicly give this information he was boowed away, insulted and I believe thrown from the University.

We can look at this problem in a Global Context, and we see that Africa, probably the richest continent in the world is the most backward and still living in a tribal phase, constantly in tribal wars killing each other.
The reason many give, as the cause, is that blacks thorough history have not been given the same oportunity as whites. But if we see it this way, jews have been chased, killed, burned, displaced and discriminated by all, including Romans, Hitites, Babilonians, Catholic church, Inquisition, germans, English, Spain, Poles, Austrians, Rusians, Ucranians, French, Muslims and many more all thru history, but jews have always ended up in a better position, richer and wining nobel prices.

In a Continental Context in America of all countries the most backward and poorer one is Haiti, with its 98 % black population.

In the Country Context. All countries that have a black minority among other monorities the black minority is inevitably the most backward, and poor, and the one with the highest crime ratio.

These are hard facts, but its not popular to confront them.
I mean no insult. But each must draw his own conclusion.
I belive the cause is evolution.
Very few people want to face this dificult problem due to the hard fact one must face.

2006-10-07 12:31:11 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

No. It doesn't make them the same race nor do they neccessarily have the same cultural background.A big part of a person's culture is that person's history. As such white and black Americans are very different. The obvious difference is that black Americans were forced into slavery and were later victims of prejudice. While most of this is, thankfully, gone from our society black Americans are still effected by the teachings of their parents, grandparents, and so on and so forth who were victims of this. However, there are other more subtle differences. For example, white families are generally patriarchal while many black families are matriarchal. Of course, one can also argue that culture can further be split up by region (i.e. northern black and white Americans are not neccessarily the same as southern [or western or eastern for that matter] black and white Americans).

2016-03-28 01:08:03 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The inhabitants of Asia and Europe had more resources available to them Wheat, barley, horses, sheep can be raised across the Eurasian continent from the China coast to the western shores of Ireland - apart from patches of desert in the middle. Most of these useful animals and plants cannot be raised in tropical Africa and never reached southern Africa until Europeans arrived.

Moreover tropical Africa, where humans first appeared is the home of endemic chronic diseases like malaria so half the population is sick half the time. Several of these diseases are carried by insects which are killed off by the cooler winters of higher latitudes.

For a fuller explanation see "Guns, Germs and Steel" by Jared Diamond.

2006-10-07 11:39:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The white race has not advanced sociologically since they captured slaves in Africa, decimated indigenous cultures all over the world, had wars with each other, killed Jesus, raped the world's resources, created an ecological nightmare, became slaves of greed, spread venereal diseases all over the world and declared themselves to be the most sociologically advanced race. Some whites are civilized, but as a group they are mindless, violent bigots like the person who posted this question.

2006-10-07 11:35:31 · answer #6 · answered by beast 6 · 4 1

B/c for centuries the black race was suppressed by the white race, i see what you saying about Africa being the origin but you have to understand that by the time racism really started there were enough white people that it didn't matter to them where they originated from.

2006-10-07 15:23:06 · answer #7 · answered by Gwennan 2 · 0 0

Most of all the white race has been afforded all the education, jobs, finacial, and even voting rights. The black race has had to indure from day one and still they indure as they are being killed off one by one by thier own race with in thier own race. They have never had hope and now more than ever, unless they have been afforded the best education, been the one that was hired and not becuse we need another black at our company, they have been left behind in the world. They have started to learn that unless they take up arms, violence and forget about education that they will never get any where. They wear the bling no matter how they got it becuase it is a status simble that they are prosporus and are sombody, no matter how many brothers they had to stomp down, kill, maim, or cut they are the bosses of thier time. They don't see any farther than now. This life is being slpashed all over ever media outlet know to man and now other races are cashing in as well. In the end we all pay no matter what we try to do. If you do wrong no matter what the gains, you will go down some way some how. Is the gain worth the down time or the death. I don't think so!!!!!!!!!!!

2006-10-07 11:32:27 · answer #8 · answered by dgbrsand1 3 · 1 4

Simple: whites had to learn different skills in their new climate, and blacks never did. Look at all these social scientists on here interjecting their opinions in the staid of facts, that is a classic trick they engage in.

Why are most professional athletes black? Because on their continent of origin physicality = survival. Whites, on the other hand, are genetically predisposed to be more successful in industrialized settings.

2006-10-07 18:51:28 · answer #9 · answered by midwestbruin 3 · 1 1

The sociology section is the wrong place to ask this question. This is not a question any social scientist can approach without the usual ideological agenda. Any one who has attempted to study this problem has been vilified and discounted. I will wait for the scientific approach to the problem; but I think I will be waiting a long time.

2006-10-07 12:06:52 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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