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2006-10-07 08:03:16 · 3 answers · asked by sua428 2 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

3 answers

The above answer is technically correct, however, one should add that there no longer is a distinction between courts of law and equity.

2006-10-07 14:57:19 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes, at common law, an injunction is an equitable remedy. There are statutory injunctions nowadays, but they are still considered equitable.

2006-10-07 08:10:35 · answer #2 · answered by thylawyer 7 · 0 0

Yep.

2006-10-07 21:08:31 · answer #3 · answered by Harvie Ruth 5 · 0 0

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