I have 2 children, ages 4 and 21 months, both by the same man. He and I were never married. He lives in Texas and is now married to someone else. The kids and I live in North Carolina. He has had no contact with our daughter (age 4) since January 2005, and has never had any contact with our son, who was born in December 2004. I want to change my children's last name from their father's, to mine. Does anyone know if this is possible without the consent of their father? I have no idea how to contact him and he has not paid any child support. (Support was finally ordered in July 2006, by default judgement, but the Texas AG cannot locate him due to him not having a job.) I appreciate any help you may be able to offer me.
2006-10-07 07:30:12 · 3 answers · asked by Janelle 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Not sure. You can always go to the courthouse on monday and ask them
2006-10-07 07:33:55 · answer #1 · answered by ♡chele♡ 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
18+
2006-10-07 07:32:12 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
perhaps, she'll have a bad twist of destiny - feels like she merits it. i'm a woman (Hillary) yet I loathe women human beings who pull this variety of component. She is obviously packed with no longer something yet, self-subject. She does not even understand a thank you to start to love and nurture her very own little ones. ugh Have the daddy touch the courts interior the suited jurisdiction and enable them to appreciate it quite is truly not ideal. regrettably, the mother does not could pass by using legal avenues to alter the final call in college, on their SS card or, IDs and that i'm uncertain something could legally be finished to circumvent it.
2016-10-15 22:55:16 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋