2006-10-06 22:14:01 · 6 answers · asked by psf 1 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Other - Entertainment
Price a random sample of them, as many as you can and then multiply by whatever you need. for example, price 10 of them (at random, not all together, not all the newest ones) and multiply that by 40 (for 400).
You might want to threat them as separate groups too (price DVDs separate from Cd's and VHS) to be a bit more accurate.
2006-10-06 22:20:22 · answer #1 · answered by Mrkaras 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Just guess...if you paid 20 dollars for each dvd-you have $60,000 in dvd's and do the same with your cd's and vhs...estimate what you paid for one and take that and multiply in by how many you have...
2006-10-07 05:34:51 · answer #2 · answered by the_silver_tin_man 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I presume you are doing this for insurance purposes. Average them out at about £10 and you won't be far wrong.
2006-10-07 05:16:46 · answer #3 · answered by Essex Ron 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Essex Ron's so correct
2006-10-07 05:21:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
you cant
2006-10-07 05:15:03 · answer #5 · answered by ☺Everybody still loves Chris!♥▼© 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
please categorise the cds and then do (calculation) i think you know it
2006-10-07 05:17:06 · answer #6 · answered by p.shyam s 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋