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A fun twist on the old philosophical question.

2006-10-06 22:08:11 · 20 answers · asked by Too Cool For Me 4 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

20 answers

No if nothing else was there to hear. Why? Because this is all but an illusion. If I can not see it or hear it I did not make it.

2006-10-06 22:11:53 · answer #1 · answered by Tedi 5 · 0 0

From a scientific attitude, no longer interior the least. jointly as the data could recommend that a tree falls without each and every physique around certainly makes a valid, data isn't constantly appropriate. whether you checklist it, possibly the sound you heard replaced right into a tree which you may not see falling on the suited same time. whether somebody is there to witness it, possibly they only think of they pay attention it. jointly as no longer likely, because of the way scientific technique works, something is achievable. If Einstein "disproved" (or, certainly provided data opposite to) the regulation of conservation of mass and the regulation of conservation of matter with E=mc^2, then there is not any reason a tree HAS to make a valid while it falls.

2016-10-15 22:38:46 · answer #2 · answered by janovich 4 · 0 0

Sounds are always there, whether there was a tree to fall or not, whether there was a deaf man or not...
Even to non-deaf, only certain range of decibels are audible.
For the deaf man, the audible range is much low, so he may not hear the sound of tree falling !

2006-10-06 22:13:39 · answer #3 · answered by Spiritualseeker 7 · 1 0

Of course it will make a sound. The deaf man would not hear it, but he would feel vibrations if he were close enough. Sounds still exist even if we all don't hear them.

2006-10-06 22:19:13 · answer #4 · answered by sugarapple25 3 · 1 0

It will make a sound that the deaf man will know exist because he is 10 feet away.

2006-10-06 22:11:47 · answer #5 · answered by denh 4 · 1 0

that tree, wherever it may fall, would definitely make a sound. but would the deaf "hear" it? we qualify.

we "hear" auditory signals in two ways: (1) normal auditory functions (2) bone conduction. by extension and analogy, those of normal hearing also (3) *hear by analogous experience*.

our experience teaches us that some visual events create / generate audible sound. when we see similar events, we tend to filter all ambient sound in anticipation of a characteristic sound typical of that visual experience. consequently, though we may never hear the expected sound, we presume that, based on our experience, what we saw must have made an audible sound, if only we were close enough to hear it.

example: we of normal hearing know that lightning is always accompanied, or soon followed, by a thunderclap. but there are instances when we see lightning in the far distance and but never hear the thunderclap. so, we presume there must have been one, except that we are too far from storm to hear any thunder. that we don’t’ hear it doesn't mean there wasn't one.

but the above example applies only to those with normal auditory functions, those who have a concept of sound borne out of experience.

one born deaf simply has neither concept nor experience with sound, depriving him of even a rudimentary experiential framework from which to draw "analogous presumptions" about any sound and correlate the same with any visual event within his immediate awareness.

however, the deaf may be taught to *hear* through analogous physiological means: bone conduction and/or tactile sensation, correlated with visual stimuli. example: if you clap your hands in front of the deaf's face, you teach him to correlate his tactile sensation of air movement on his facial skin, his visual image of two palms clapping and the written word “clap” or “applause”. next time he sees someone applaud, he will *hear* it.

so, would the deaf hear the tree fall? no, at least not in the same way you or i would, specially if he were born deaf and has no experience with or concept of sound. but if he were trained to correlate a visual event with a sensory experience, either through tactile sensation or bone conduction, then he will fight you to the death insisting that he *heard* the tree fall.

but the bottom line is, deaf or not, we won’t hear the tree as it falls in europe if we were admiring the sights off the great wall of china.

2006-10-07 02:44:04 · answer #6 · answered by saberlingo 3 · 1 0

Tree would make a sound. Deaf man would not.

2006-10-06 22:12:07 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

of course, unless the whole world went deaf. the sound would be there but the man wont hear.

2006-10-07 00:11:20 · answer #8 · answered by DeeDee 2 · 0 0

first of all it depends whether the tree is made of plastic or death metal ,,,,,,the trees as complained by many biologists as speechless,,,,, but the break through is that trees shed their leaves in autumn.....holy cow where was i yeah and the secondly check if the blind man is really deaf or not because these dayz lot of them pretend to be,,,,, because as the saying goes dumb quetions get stupi.d answers the blind man has to react ,,,,,,,,,,,anywayz thankz for asking

2006-10-06 22:18:21 · answer #9 · answered by george grohan mendal 3 · 1 0

That would depend if the tree fell on the man, then the only sound would be a deafening crunch.


Sorry. lol

2006-10-06 22:10:32 · answer #10 · answered by Raide UK 3 · 1 0

Yes, it would, a deaf person may not always hear through their ears but they hear through sight, vibrations, and scent. In this case I do not think taste would fit.

2006-10-06 22:15:11 · answer #11 · answered by LostInTheCrowd 2 · 0 0

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