2006-10-06 17:34:21 · 6 answers · asked by mediaptera 4 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
If so, would the function be linear and given by y=x+c, for some constant c?
2006-10-06 17:46:26 · update #1
Yes. Here's why:
Δy = Δx
Now divide both sides by Δx:
Δy/Δx = 1
You know the slope is equal to the change in y (Δy) over the change in x (Δx). Therefore, the slope is 1. Again, yes to both questions.
2006-10-06 17:45:23 · answer #1 · answered by عبد الله (ドラゴン) 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
i would like to disagree...
what if delta x = delta y = 0. that can be possible, no change in x so no change in y. therefore, delta y/delta x is undefined...
that was a wild guess, but, if i'm not mistaken, it is true...
just e-mail me if i did it wrong...
2006-10-07 07:02:03 · answer #2 · answered by emee_rocks 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
2006-10-07 00:36:15 · answer #3 · answered by Melody 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
To answer your other question, yes, if delta x = delta y for the entire function.
2006-10-07 00:36:06 · answer #4 · answered by James L 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
yes
2006-10-07 00:36:22 · answer #5 · answered by raj 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. the slope is: (Y+deltaY-y)/(X+deltaX-X)=deltaY/deltaX=1
2006-10-09 20:35:22 · answer #6 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋