It's not a question of kings outranking queens - a king is the equal of a Queen Regnant. It is because a husband's status is not determined by his wife, only vice versa unless she is of higher status (in which cases their respective statuses are unaffected). No man who marries a dame, a duchess, a baroness or a princess receives a title, unless he is specially granted one (like Princess Margaret's husband). Philip had to be created a prince of the UK and a duke after his marriage to Princess Elizabeth but he received nothing automatically.
Clarence House has stated that Camilla will be known as 'Princess Consort' after Charles ascends the throne, but in law she will be Queen, just as, in law, she is now Princess of Wales despite what the media call her. The Waleses don't want to aggravate public opinion which thinks PoW is 'Diana's title', but the wife of a titled man automatically shares his title.
2006-10-06 04:33:31
·
answer #1
·
answered by Dunrobin 6
·
4⤊
0⤋
Like everyone else has been saying, King out ranks Queen. Since HM Queen Elizabeth II was born into the royal family and was first inline to take the throne, her husband will be a Prince. Also, Camilla could be named Queen when Prince Charles is named King, but she has said that she will decline the title of Queen in respect to the late Princess Diana, Princess of Wales, Prince Charles's First wife.
2006-10-08 10:39:10
·
answer #2
·
answered by Shannon H 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
It is a strange one but I think that the Queen has to make her husband King. Queen Victoria never made Albert the King but Queen Mary who suceeded King James II (after parliament kicked him out and exiled him) made her husband - William of Orange, King William. I think that the wives will be queen as the last two King Georges (V and VI) have had Queen Mary and Queen Elizabeth (The Queen mother). As you probably are aware it is really parliament that calls the shots and there are rules barring people from becoming King (Philips, Greek Orthadox religion would be a problem for starters) and parliaments intervention in the succession of Edward VIII (him being a Nazi and a traitor) also demonstrates this when the official line of marrying a divorcee does not bar Charles from succession.
2006-10-08 10:00:50
·
answer #3
·
answered by Josef H 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
In general a reigning King's wife is entitled to be called a Queen, irrespective of her bloodline, and usually she is. If Charles had stayed married to Diana, she would have eventually been Queen Diana. If William marries, and becomes King, his wife can be Queen, with no ifs, buts or maybes.
When Camilla married Charles, she was automatically entitled to be called Princess of Wales, Duchess of Cornwall, Duchess of Rothesay, and (I think) Lady of the Isles. If Charles becomes King, she automatically has the right to be called Queen. It is only through good sense and good taste that she has decided to not take up the title Princess of Wales, and to accept some lesser title than Queen if and when Charles is King.
Queens who are queens by direct inheritance, not by marriage, can confer any title they want on their husbands, except King. Mary Stuart had to get Parliament to give her husband William the title of King. Victoria and Elizabeth II have done different things, and the next Queen Regnant could do the same as either of them or invent something different again.
2006-10-06 05:54:22
·
answer #4
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
Because the Queen is Queen regnant, meaning that she is the sovereign in her own right. The title of King ranks higher than that of Queen, so her husband could not be known as King as it would be incorrect - Prince Philip is merely the spouse of the monarch, he is not sovereign in his own right.
The wife of a King is normally titled Queen. In the case of Camilla, when Prince Charles becomes King she would legally be Queen but she has announced that she would rather be known as Princess Consort. This decision is not the norm. Usually the wife of a King takes the title of Queen, so Prince William's future wife will, in all likelihood, become Queen when he inherits the throne.
2006-10-07 15:50:44
·
answer #5
·
answered by Marilyn 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
1. Why a Queen but her husband not the King?
Under British Laws of Succession in effect in 1952, when a King died with no sons living, then the eldest daughter became Queen Regnant [i.e., a Reigning Queen].
In 1936 when a King died (or abdicated) then there being no sons of the KIng who abdicated, the eldest son of the deceased King would become King (in this instance King George VII, son of King George V). His wife because Queen Elizabeth, the Queen Consort.
Notice, normally in the UK the wife of a King is a Queen Consort (as was the case of King George VI and Queen Elizabeth) but when it is a Queen Regnant (as in the case of Queen Elizabeth II) her husband is NOT a King; rather; a Prince or Prince Consort.
To summarise, in the UK
the husand of a Queen Consort is a King
the husband of a Queen Regnant is a Prince.
2.
If HRH Prince Charles, the Prince of Wales becomes King then traditionally his wife would become a Queen Consort -- though in this case they have chosen otherwise ... she is Duchess of Cornwall, she might just use that title. Also unknown as of now (I think) is whether when Charles is anonted as King will she be "anonted" as was the Queen in 1937.
If HRH Prince William of Wales becomes King, and if he has been married once and once only and if they are still living together as husband and wife then the usual procedure probably would be followed. He would be King, she would be Queen.
2006-10-06 05:29:55
·
answer #6
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
0⤋
The wives of kings usually become queens, but the husbands of kings do not become kings.
Queen Elizabeth II is queen because she inherited from her father, King George VI.
Queen Elizabeth the Queen Mother was queen because she married a man who became king (George VI).
Camilla will not become queen because of the Diana effect. For the same reason, she does not use the title Princess of Wales, which she is entitled to as the wife of the Prince of Wales. Instead she is known as Duchess of Cornwall, a title with fewer Diana associations.
2006-10-08 05:15:04
·
answer #7
·
answered by Homebody123 2
·
1⤊
0⤋
The royal blood line came from Queen Elizabeth, therefore her husband, having married the rightful ruler of England, et al, can only carry the title of Queens Consort, or more formally Prince, because to carry the title of King he would have to be the one carrying the royal bloodline and with the title King being higher than Queen it would suggest he is the one ruler.
When William becomes King, his wife will become Queen; since the title Queen is below that of King there will be no confusion as to whom is reigning at that time.
2006-10-06 21:46:49
·
answer #8
·
answered by Shadow Dancer 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
Technically Camilla will become Queen but due to her modesty she will be the Princess Consort. ( Princess Consort is the king's Wife) likewise with Queen Elizabeth and prince phillip He is the Queens Consort, as he is just the husband of the Queen.
This doesnt relate to the question but i learn about 2 years ago in school that prince phillip's grandmother was Queen Victoria... also The current Queens Grandmother.. so they are related...
I think i have used the correct terms but i cant remember .. My 14 year old mind is being bombarded with GCSE information at the moment lol.
2006-10-06 09:24:52
·
answer #9
·
answered by Charles Graf Von Schneider 1
·
0⤊
0⤋
It is because the Queen is the monarch and her husband can't be the King because the King is higher than a Queen and the monarch has to have the highest title.
No Camilla the gorilla won't be queen, she will be the King's consort, William's other half will only be Queen if she is the first wife of the King and that she hasn't been married before.
2006-10-06 04:31:44
·
answer #10
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
1⤋