Why do so many languages have the same sound for mother and father (momma/poppa) if these languages and cultures developped without ever coming into contact with each other? How did this happen? Did all languages start from one language? The bible says that at one point everyone on earth spoke one laguage. Is there any historical truth or evidence to back this up?
2006-10-06 02:43:49 · 3 answers · asked by bigdre22 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Other - Society & Culture
most words derive from latin words and this is why they are very much in common. and so, languages that do not have a latin alphabet such as chinese, arabic etc, do not look alike with those that have a latin alphabet (and hence latin words)
2006-10-06 03:13:20 · answer #1 · answered by Joey G 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Remember that most languages stem from European languages, and those that don't are influenced by them. The root of most European languages is Latin. also Britain had an enormous Empire not so long ago and the Americans wish they had although never have, they were the first country to gain independance from Great Britain.
2006-10-06 02:52:52 · answer #2 · answered by jimmyfish 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No they come from German-Celtic & Latin.
2006-10-06 02:48:43 · answer #3 · answered by Chantal D. 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋