If two people have an equal share of a piece of land that has not been divided up, and one person builds a house on that shared land, can the second person make a claim for a share of the house by simply being part owner of just the land and has made no financial contribution towards the construction of the house? And if so, by what area of law allows this, and where can I find it on the internet?
2006-10-06
02:29:49
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6 answers
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asked by
James M
2
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics