This lady I know has been charged with two counts of felony charges one of them being a fraud charge. This is what she had done, Her house was being foreclosed on, when it went to auction no one bid on the house (which i am guessing bought her a little more time) anyways during that time she found someone willing to pay her fifteen thousand dollars down on the house and then make rent payments to her each month after, then she sent in the morgage compay three thousand dollars in to catch up her payments thinking that it would be ok and the foreclosure would be dropped if it was caught up, so apparently the lady she sold the house to was told by her that she owned the house and had the title in hand. now the fifteen thousand been blown and the morgage company has found a buyer for the house and they have been to court one and their is two felony counts on her as of right now. Could their be any jail time over this? I think thats where she should be!
2006-10-06 01:57:24 · 5 answers · asked by bshelby2121 6 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
this is actually her second offense, she comitted a fogery charge back at the begining of the year, she took one of her ex husbands personal checks and altered it and then wrote it to a bonding company to get her boyfriend out of jail, that case was retired for 6 months, also the morgage company sent back the threethousand dollars and did not apply it to the account
2006-10-06 03:50:05 · update #1
Whether there will be any jail time associated with a conviction for fraud will depend on the sentencing scheme of your state. In my state, fraud such as this would possibly result in some prison time, because she has a prior conviction. That would raise her in the sentencing calculations.
I question why anyone would buy a house without a title search being done to determine whether or not the owner had a valid title, and/or there weren't other liens on the property. A title search would have shown up the foreclosure action, and a look at the court records would have then seen that there had already been a judgment followed by an order for sale. The buyer in this case was certainally foolish.
2006-10-06 04:35:17 · answer #1 · answered by Phil R 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jail - possibly. What she did is definitely fraud. She sold a house she did not legally own, as the bank had already foreclosed.
Her sentance will depend on many things, was it a first offense, what other factors will the judge take into account, etc.
2006-10-06 02:07:04 · answer #2 · answered by Kutekymmee 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yFraud by conversion is a felony however they have to prove intent and if she can convince the courts or the DA that she truly thought that she could redeem the mortgage and resell the house then there's no crime and any recourse would have to be in civil court.
The fact that she sent the mortgage company $3,000. will go a long way to exonerate her of any crime.
I'm guessing that she won't be convicted. It probably won't even get to criminal court.
2006-10-06 02:08:52 · answer #3 · answered by Jack 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because of the fact on her area, it harassment, and attack. on the TSA area, its area of their responsibilities for working as a TSA agent. same with docs. Its ok for a doctor to prod, grope, and touch you, as area of the direction of their jobs as a doctor. besides the indisputable fact that, its unlawful for you, no longer a doctor to achieve this.
2016-10-15 21:47:31 · answer #4 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the buyer of the house should go to jail for the crime of being stupid!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
2006-10-06 04:51:28 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋