the number of 6 element number sets in the 49 numbers =49!/43!
however,the order of each group of 6 numbers can appear 6! times
hence,the formula for 6 out of 49 (the 6 numbers coming in any order) =(49!)/(43!x6!) =(44x45 x46x47x48x49)/(1x2x3x4x5x6)
= 11x3x23x47x8x49 = 13,983,816
therefore,the odds of winning the lottery is1 in 13,983,816
i hope this helps
2006-10-06 07:05:22
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Yup, there is definitely the same chance of the numbers 1 to 6 coming out, in any order, as any other six numbers in any order. For those of you who play the lottery, it is impossible to increase your chances of winning (other than by buying more tickets), but it is possible to increase your expected payout should all or most of your numbers match. To do this you must attempt to pick numbers in a way most lottery players don't. This means never picking a number under 32 (since A LOT of people use special dates like birthdays or anniversaries), and picking lots of consecutive numbers (as it is perceived by most people that there is less chance of consecutive numbers coming up). Picking numbers following these two rules means that you have as much chance as anyone of winning (ignoring number of tickets), but if you get 4 or more matching numbers you should be sharing the prize fund with less people.
By the way, the overall odds of winning anything are around 1 in 50. Not great when you consider the lowest prize is only a payout of 9 to 1.
2006-10-07 01:31:21
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answer #2
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answered by msm1089 2
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Yes, each number has equal chance of being drawn (i.e. a 1 in 49 chance), so there is just as much chance of the numbers 1 to 6 coming up as any other six numbers.
2006-10-06 01:52:51
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answer #3
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answered by Chris G 3
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1 coming up in any or der is 1/10 and 6 coming up is 1/10 so 1/5 is the probability of it coming up in any order.
2006-10-06 02:39:27
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answer #4
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answered by Mathew C 5
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All balls are equally likely to come out, BUT, the probability changes each time, since you don't put the ball back:
1st ball - 1 in 49
2nd ball - 1 in 48
3rd ball - 1 in 47
4th ball - 1 in 46
5th ball - 1 in 45
6th ball - 1 in 44
So, the probability for 1-6, or indeed, any combination of balls coming out, is 1/(49 x 48 x 47 x 46 x 45 x 44). or 1 in 10,068,347,520.
And you thought it was easy to win that thing...
Hope this helps,
Will
2006-10-06 02:29:15
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answer #5
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answered by Will S 2
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No you could no longer win any lottery without procuring a cost tag. No tickets could be offered for the united kingdom Lottery from exterior the united kingdom. in case you had won a prize, you will not be asked for funds as a fashion to collect it. the entire factor is untrue and could be stated to the police, extremely. in case you have been silly adequate to deliver them funds you will not see it back, nor might you notice any prize. the suitable factor is to delete the e mail and do no longer forget that no-one provides funds for no longer something!
2016-12-13 03:12:05
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answer #6
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answered by ? 4
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Yep - just as likely. The advantage would be however - that nobody would put in 1-6 as they would deem it an unlikely number to come up.
2006-10-06 01:45:31
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answer #7
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answered by Felidae 5
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1-6 is just as likely as any other number combination. Don't know out of how many the NL is drawn, so wait for another answer for that.
2006-10-06 01:43:44
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answer #8
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answered by Wazza_inhouse 1
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I read that 1-6 is one of the most common choices.
2006-10-06 02:02:58
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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if you look at all the numbers 1-49 as a whole...yes...but if you look at the numbers as groups of colours...then no...as the odds become increasingly less likely as colours from one block become less frequent...the chance of another colour increase. But I believe the colour of the balls chances depending on what set of balls are chosen.....
2006-10-06 01:48:28
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answer #10
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answered by michael s 4
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