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solve this plz:

1/2+1/2+1/2+1/2+ ... = ?

2006-10-06 00:21:38 · 16 answers · asked by MaK 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

16 answers

1/2 + 1/2 =1 + 1/2 = 1and1/2 + 1/2 = 2 + 1/2 = 2and 1/2 + 1/2= 3 + 1/2 = 3 and 1/2 + 1/2 = 4 + 1/2 = 4 and 1/2 + 1/2 = 5......... and so on


get it?

.

2006-10-06 00:31:03 · answer #1 · answered by ? ? ? bloody_angel ??? 3 · 0 0

2

2006-10-09 13:36:33 · answer #2 · answered by Tavia T 1 · 0 0

i presume your question was:

1/(2+1/(2+1/(2+1/(2+1/(2+...............=?

(a fraction having the denominator with infinite repeating fractional terms)

in that case, the solution goes as follows:

let the given expression be equalm to a.

then, 1/a = 2+1/(2+1/(2+1/(2+.........
onthe right hand side, after the first '2', the rest of the expression is again 'a ' (since it is an infinite sequence).

hence, 1/a = 2+a from which, a^2+2a-1=0
solving this quadratic in a, (using formula),yields,

a = sqrt(2) -1.

hope that ansewred ur question.

2006-10-06 01:14:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You see if the sum goes on for an infinite number of terms the answer diverges to infinity, basically this is
lim n/2
n->infinity

so long as the number in the denominator is not infinity or zero (here 2) this will always be infinity.
Unless you didn't worry about brackets and this is actually a continued fraction?

Hope this helps!

2006-10-06 03:39:08 · answer #4 · answered by yasiru89 6 · 0 0

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2016-12-04 08:09:45 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

the answer isn't n/2, that would be for a finite sum of n terms, and the question implies an infinite sum. so the answer is inifinity (or the sum diverges). there are many ways of proving it but i won't bore you with them.

i believe you can only use the sum of the series (a/(1-r)) if the common ratio is strictly less than 1?

in case of a continued fraction then you can use the other mentioned answer.

2006-10-06 01:07:52 · answer #6 · answered by tsunamijon 4 · 0 0

its an infinite geometric progression , with first term(a)=1/2 and common ration(d)=1

sum of infinite GP is given by S=a/(1-r)

so the anwer is = (1/2)/(1-1) = (1/2)/0 = indefinite

2006-10-06 01:26:01 · answer #7 · answered by sayantanmath 2 · 0 0

2 -1/2 the line represents another half. Add up the halves and add one more for the blank space.

2006-10-06 00:23:54 · answer #8 · answered by Just Bein' Me 6 · 0 0

Take the lcm which is the least common multiplier, here it is 2 being common. Add up all the numerators and divide by the LCM and you get the answer. If the numerators are multiples of the denominator divide such numerators by the lcm and add up all the results and divide by lcm.

2006-10-06 02:26:02 · answer #9 · answered by Mathew C 5 · 0 0

Presuming the ... means to continue the sequence forever, the answer is infinity.

2006-10-06 00:25:18 · answer #10 · answered by Bramblyspam 7 · 0 0

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