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i think that to think that there was no extreme wealth in russia is to confuse formal wealth and effective wealth, ie, paper wealth and real wealth

stalin had all the power, had effective ownership of all russian land and people - he could not have murdered millions of russians if he was not extremely powerful, ie had control and use of more money than others

effective wealth, real wealth, is in the use and control of wealth

sold to the russian people as egalitarian, propeople, just [and apparently swallowed by a lot of americans as egalitarian - perhaps by many more americans than russians], communist russia was dictatorship, fascism, tyranny, state terrorism, banditry, giant theft

did you know mussolini took most of his manifesto from the communists? - merely sweetener to make the medicine of slavery go down

that's what i think - am i wrong?

2006-10-05 21:55:53 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science Economics

2 answers

I think you love the sound of your own voice. You seem much more interested in expressing your opinions than in discovery through our answers.

2006-10-08 05:02:32 · answer #1 · answered by MBK 7 · 0 0

I think you are right.
Isn't Castro a wealthy man ? (in the terms of the worlds richest men)

2006-10-05 22:17:46 · answer #2 · answered by cooperman 5 · 0 0

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