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Medieval English music was unique because:

A. Composers and musicians used secular texts.

B. The absence of written music meant that musicians had to memorize everything.

C. The advent of written notation allowed for increased complexity.

D. The church banned choral music.


Which one?

2006-10-05 15:35:41 · 5 answers · asked by jonwmcgown 2 in Education & Reference Homework Help

5 answers

From wikipedia:

"The founder of what is now considered the standard music stave was Guido d'Arezzo, an Italian Benedictine monk who lived from 995-1050 A.D. His revolutionary method--combining a 4 line stave with the first form of notes known as 'neumes'--was the precursor to the the five line stave, which was introduced in the 14th century and is still in use today. Guido D'Arezzo's achievements paved the way for the modern form of written music, music books and the modern concept of a composer."

So written music notation was becoming established in medieval times. Sung music was based on sacred texts, not secular. Often choral music was the only kind allowed in churches. I would pick C as the answer, since Guido's development occurred in the medieval period.

2006-10-05 15:51:43 · answer #1 · answered by gp4rts 7 · 0 0

Definitely C.

Until the Baroque period, the church has a big power to anything including music so music has to be religious, secular music are very rare, ussually only folk dancing music, so A isn't the answer.

Church always use the choral music, even until nowdays most of the church all over the world uses choir/choral music, so D isn't the answer.

Music notation is just founded in that time by a monk for Gregorian chant (kind of choir for male with a sonorous voice, make things complex because they need to learn a new thing, and that is reading music notation. At that time, education is centered to the church (as music, politic, etc.), so the monk is the one has time and source to envent such thing as music notation that develped to be the music note that we use now.

2006-10-09 05:58:26 · answer #2 · answered by N-Rue 7 3 · 0 0

C because:

A- Most music was centered around religion.

B- I believe they had a form of writing, not sure though.

D- Church banned instruments. The term "a capella" means "of the chapel." A capella groups are all vocal.

2006-10-05 22:41:49 · answer #3 · answered by reversedacurse90 3 · 0 0

NOT D

NOT B

C is probable, because notation which started in ancient times, became pneumes on one, then more than one linme duing middle ages. Cantus Firmus foundations were overlay id with more and more complex countermelodies.

2006-10-05 22:42:39 · answer #4 · answered by Legandivori 7 · 0 0

A or C.

2006-10-05 22:37:21 · answer #5 · answered by You're My Wonderwall 3 · 0 0

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