2006-10-05 15:05:25 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
If I'm understanding your question correctly, there's only one step. The justification/reason would be the commutative property of multiplication. All you've done is commute the (-5z) and (-8).
2006-10-05 15:10:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Somebody is pulling our leg here. A glance tells you that the only difference on the two sides of the equals sign is the order in which the terms appear. Therefore, they are necessarily equivalent, because you've gone and put in all those parentheses to make each element separate, so they are multiplied. Since multiplication does not require any particular sequence of terms, there's no point.
2006-10-05 22:14:21 · answer #2 · answered by auntb93again 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
ok u like multiply -5x-8=40zto the second and then ame answer
2006-10-05 22:07:43 · answer #3 · answered by a_montana_chick 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
cancel out all on each side 0=0. it's a retarded question(not yours the math problem)
2006-10-05 22:13:21 · answer #4 · answered by john m 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The steps are... step 1...step 2...... step 3..... etc. lol
2006-10-05 22:07:58 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
are u in seventh grade bc this is wat i am learning at least i think it is!!LOL
2006-10-05 22:13:23 · answer #6 · answered by j 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋