Which regions' language was least influenced by the Indo-European migrations?

Question

A. Europe
B. Persia
C. Egypt
D. India

Answer 1

I would say "none of the above" because all these regions were influenced by the Indo-European migrations.

The clearest answer among those four is "India" because south India has remained outside the Indo-European language family. The modern-day languages of Europe, of Persia (Farsi), and of Egypt (Arabic) are all Indo-European.

It can also be argued that the answer is India because the main Aryan languages of India such as Hindi and Gujarati are closer to Sanskrit and the supposed proto-Indo-European language than are the Farsi, Arabic, and the European languages derived from ancient Latin, Greek, or Irish.

It is popularly believed in the West that the Indo-European speaking Aryan peoples of north India arrived there from somewhere else within the past 10,000 years. India's own scholars tend to disagree, suggesting that the first humans to live on the Subcontinent were the ancestors of the people of the early Indus Valley civilisations (Harappa, Mohenjo-Daro, etc) and that their descendents are, in turn, north India's people today, the only major migration being from the valley of the dried-up Saraswati River to that of the Ganga.

Answer 2

C. Egypt.

Answer 3

I believe it is B.