Given a coin with probability p of landing on heads after a flip, what is the probability that the number of heads will ever equal the number of tails assuming an infinite number of flips?
2006-10-05 05:32:55 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Each flip is independent event with no connection to the other. Eg. a string of flips that was all heads (6 of 6 for example) does not raise the probability that tails will come up next. In infinite number of flips its the same as the probability of one flip coming up tails. If PHeads is 50:50 then tails will be 50:50. If PHeads is 60:40 then the PTails is 40:60. 1.00 pHeads = pTails in infinite number of flips or 1 flip.
2006-10-05 05:43:38 · answer #1 · answered by geocache22 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
more likely when even number of flips are accomplished.
More than likely with a +-5% for statistical leeway.
If your using a real coin.
The nice thing about a theoretical coin is it never has a little grease smeared on one end or that stuff that acumulates mysteriously in pockets to throw off the statistical calculatations so therefore it would be
if p=heads and t=tails
if you say flip the coin 20 times p/20 would give you the % of times the coin was heads. say there were 10 heads and 10 tails. heads would equal 50%
tails would equal 50%
2006-10-05 05:42:49 · answer #2 · answered by Grev 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
> All i understand is that i could use the id for infinite sums it may be which you're analyzing infinite sums and consequently are meant to apply them, in spite of the shown fact that it's not necessary in this subject. enable F = P(first participant wins) Then S = P(2d participant wins) Now enable's play: F can win suited away with a turn of Heads (P = a million/2) or he can turn tails (P = a million/2), and now this is S's turn. S's P(prevailing) on the factor is precisely the comparable as F's replace into till now the 1st turn. yet there is in basic terms a a million/2 threat he even gets to play. for that reason: S = a million/2 * F And, considering that considered one of them has to win finally ... S + F = a million fixing those provides F = 2/3 S = a million/3
2016-12-08 08:58:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
100%.
Assuming infinite flips, every finite differance will at some point be achieved.
Inifinity is a long time.
2006-10-05 05:35:55 · answer #4 · answered by kheserthorpe 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It will happen an infinite # of times (unless p = 1)!
2006-10-08 19:50:43 · answer #5 · answered by bluecloud23 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
p
2006-10-05 05:35:04 · answer #6 · answered by Nick W 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋