Serious question about pedophilia?

Question

Is there a difference between a psychological attraction to pre-pubescent children and the legal definition of "statutory rape?"

Let me be clear. Both are illegal, and should be. No argument on that. Throw the book at 'em.

But since we're all talking about it, I'm wondering if the psychological therapy, as opposed to the legal classification, is different.

Here's an EXTREME example, used to prove a point. Two people, one over 18 and one just turned 18, are having sex on a US ship at sea (assume US law applies). The ship crosses the international date line (???!!!), and the younger person is now one day shy of 18 (or whatever the age of consent is).

I have no problem with the older person now being guilty of staturory rape - all laws have to draw lines somewhere. But has that person gone from being "normal" to being "a sick pedophile?" I guess my question is whether the psychological diagnosis is different.

Try to address the main point, not a flaw in the example.

Answer 1

In this example, I would say that it is the law that is flawed. Yes, there has to be a legal line drawn somewhere, but if the law in the example allowed for a cross in the international date line to define the person as "younger," there is a flaw. The determination of age should be within a given time zone, if the matter is going to be so specific.

The person in question has definitely not become a "pedofile."

In fact, even outside the context of the question, I believe if there is a reasonable age gap (say, maybe two years age difference), then the older person wouldn't be defined as a "pedofile."

Answer 2

Is there a difference between a psychological attraction to persons of the same sex and the legal definition of "sodomy" where it's illegal?