2006-10-04 22:25:50 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
That is a good question...
Thinking about it though, all items of clothing that have separate sections to put each leg through are refferred to in plural- tights, shorts, trousers, trunks, speedos etc.
Therefore panties are refferred to in plural because all legwear that has joined but separate parts for each leg is reffered to in plural.
Why does that happen? Well, in the middle ages peasants could only afford one piece of cloth and would choose which leg to wrap it around. This became known as a trouser after John Trous, a french peasant who first coined the idea. During the industrial revolution the price of clothing dropped and peasants were at last able to afford two pieces of cloth. For convenience they would join then together and they became known as a pair of trousers.
I may have made that up.
2006-10-04 22:43:30 · answer #1 · answered by keirboy 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Very good Q! I hadnt even thought about it before.
It seems to be plural for any clothing worn on your lower half. Pants, trousers, jeans etc.
Thinking about the top half - jumper, shirt, blouse etc. its always singular.
Weird!
2006-10-04 22:42:26 · answer #2 · answered by Akasha 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because "bra" is actually short for brazier. Panties..... no clue.
2006-10-05 08:12:53 · answer #3 · answered by ? 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
well bra is short for brassier, and panties, are like, "mini pants... you put 2 legs in like pants.. lol
2006-10-05 03:45:08 · answer #4 · answered by Dr. PHILlis (in training) 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because English is a jerky language.
2006-10-04 22:36:33 · answer #5 · answered by Pandak 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good question! I haven't got a clue.
2006-10-04 22:32:43 · answer #6 · answered by starrynight1 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why a "Pair" of pants when they are only one thing in hand?
2006-10-04 22:29:28 · answer #7 · answered by soniaatcalifornia 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋