2006-10-04 21:01:30 · 9 answers · asked by anonymouslook 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
There is a presumption, which is unsubstantiated in the first statement. The question that follows is based this unsubstantiated presumption? No need for inspiration for any invention. A falling apple led to the invention of the law of motion, by Newton. It was not a moment of inspiration kicking off invention. It arouses your sense of curiosity. You then assume a premise, which could be the possible reason for the event. Then you start proving the assumption. That is how some inventions are made. On other occasions, inventions need not necessarily be a event triggered. It could be just an idea, formed by you or by some body else, which you wanted to prove. That lead to the invention. First there is a problem, which requires a solution; the solution offers an opportunity for speculation as to its cause; then testing of all the possible solutions; zeroing in on a solution and then proving the solution, by experiments in the lab and in practice.
2006-10-04 23:14:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Indians believed the concept of nothing, Europe frowned upon this concept.
The invention of zero has had a tremendous impact on the history of mankind because it made the development of higher mathematics possible. Although it is not known with certainty who invented it, yet there is no controversy about the claim that it was invented in India around landlord century A.D.
Right from the beginning of the civilisation man has tried many different methods to write the numbers. For this purpose, Greeks used letters of their alphabet and Egyptians appropriate pictures. Romans used a complicated system. They used X to represent 10; 'C' to mark 100 and M for 1000. For one they used I, for 5 - 'V', for 50 - 'L,' for 500 - 'D'. They represented 4 by 'IV'. If they had to write 1648, they wrote 'M13CXLVIll'. This was indeed a complicated method.
However, long before the birth of Christ, the Hindus in India had invented a far better number system but without zero at that time. Later zero was invented. It was brought to Europe about the year 900 A.D. by the Arab traders and is called the Hindu-Arabic system.
In this system, all numbers are written within the nine digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 and the zero '0' (sunya). Here each figure has a value according to the place in which it is written. The Romans didn't have a zero in their system.
Zero has some peculiar properties. When it is added to or subtracted from any number, the result remains the same. When any number is multiplied by zero it becomes zero. It is the only number which can be divided by another number but it cannot divide any other number.
The expression 0/0 is neither meaningless nor meaningful. In fact, it is indeterminate. Zero is similar to all other natural numbers.
The invention of zero became the turning point in the development of culture and civilisation - without which the progress of modern science, industry and commerce was inconceivable.
2006-10-06 08:59:23 · answer #2 · answered by Krishna 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I've heard how man supposedly invented the zero to represent something lower than the one (1)...but as I see it
There was always a zero to hold everything
There never was a nothing
2006-10-05 04:14:17 · answer #3 · answered by WW 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
From what I remember - zero was a number and concept given to us by our learned muslim friends and used for accounting and higher maths. Few cultures had the concept of a number that implies an absence of a thing and the western world learnt about zero during the renassiance through the universities and scholars from the arabian world.
As for inspiration? there is no telling...
2006-10-05 04:09:46 · answer #4 · answered by Tish-a-licious 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
George Bush's IQ inspired its invention. They needed a numeric symbol for a living person who had no brain. I heard that there is some dead guy in Oklahoma who scored higher than Bush.
2006-10-05 04:40:01 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The idea of "zero" in mathematics was presented by an anonymous Arab mathematician hundreds of years ago. Nobody knows exactly how he came upon this idea.
2006-10-05 04:09:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
May be it is the inventors fate
2006-10-05 05:04:38 · answer #7 · answered by sridevi k 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
may be the discoverer is zero in all aspects...
2006-10-05 04:06:41 · answer #8 · answered by Shashang_99 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
May be to get more number than just sigle digit numbers...............
2006-10-05 04:15:21 · answer #9 · answered by eagertoknow 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋