The teacher's answer involved a subtle trick... here's a proof of 1+1+1=1.
Let a=b
Then a^2=ab We can then subtract b^2 from both sides:
a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2 We can reduce this to:
(a+b)*(a-b) = b(a-b) We can divide both sides by (a-b) to get:
a+b = b And since a = b, we can substitue to get
b+b = b so:
2b=b we divide both sides by b again to get
2=1.
since 1+1 = 2, we can substitute the first 1 with a 2 to get:
2+1 = 2. But 2 = 1 + 1, so we can substitute the first 2 to get:
1 + 1 + 1 = 2. And we proved earlier that 2=1, so we substitute for 2 to get:
1+1+1=1 !!!!!!
This proof seems wrong... and it is... The reason it's wrong is because both sides equal zero in the second line... everything we do to the statements after that is pretty much meaningless (and we divide by zero at one point)
2006-10-04 16:23:13
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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When does 1+1+1=1?
Never in math unless 1 doesn't really equal 1 and is 1/3 of something or needs more than one piece to make it a whole. Like 3 pieces of a puzzle make one puzzle.
2006-10-04 16:10:48
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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one social gathering, does no longer an evidence make. it truly is like conserving x^2 = 2x each and each of the time because 2*2 = 2+2. handle it from the attitude of you're dividing each and each peice better cases. So even once you've better peices, by skill of including the denominators, you're making all of them smaller. i don't have the time to placed it into nifty accepted letters to teach atm, yet i'd bypass from: 2/9 and 5/9, the position 2/9 will be
2016-11-26 03:22:14
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Fibanocci Sequence
2006-10-04 16:23:29
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answer #4
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answered by vegasbrother99 3
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I want a link to this question. This sounds interesting. I don't know the answer, but I hope someone figures it out. =D
2006-10-04 17:04:11
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answer #5
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answered by ViCKi!™|` 5
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Another possibility is that this is referring to equivalence classes mod 2.
2006-10-04 17:05:10
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answer #6
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answered by Pascal 7
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Im Special
2006-10-04 16:12:05
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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If you are talking about lumps of playdoh maybe? (add 3 lumps together and still have 1 lump)
2006-10-04 16:03:56
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answer #8
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answered by cushdogjr 3
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when it's a family? you know, father(1), mother(1), baby(1) = family (1)
2006-10-04 16:06:47
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answer #9
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answered by John C 2
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Ill just put this to have a link to this question. Hope someone will answer. :)
2006-10-04 16:08:28
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answer #10
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answered by Mudri 2
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