I was watching the 2004 election results here in England and I can remember early in the night Dan Rather urging people to vote. If my memory of the event is accurate, the early results where looking as thought the Republicans where going to get a landslide victory but not all of the polls had closed in some states.
If this is correct, could it have been seen as a political act?
If my memory of this is correct, how come some polls where still open, was it something to do with the time difference?
2006-10-04
12:47:56
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8 answers
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asked by
footynutguy
4
in
Politics & Government
➔ Elections