vacation accruals are not as easy as they seem. My company provides 40 hrs of vacation after one year and it is accumulated weekly (per pay period). Nothing seems to work out correctly. Thanks!
2006-10-04 10:45:55 · 6 answers · asked by Lisa G 2 in Business & Finance ➔ Other - Business & Finance
you do not start with 2080 hours- 40 is vacation
so that leaves 2040
average person misses 5 days per year for illness personal ect
leaves 2000
which works out perfect
2006-10-04 10:50:47 · answer #1 · answered by Anarchy99 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you divide 40 by 52 (number of weeks per year), then you get the vacation accrual hours per week. This is roughly 46.2 minutes per week.
Your pay stub should show the vacation accrual.
2006-10-04 10:52:07 · answer #2 · answered by errant_hero 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the word "per" means "over", so it would be this:
40 hrs
----------- X 100% = 1.92%
2080 hrs
You would then take your weekly hours (let's say full-time - 40 hours) and multiply it by this percentage to get hours per week...
40 hrs X 1.92% (or 0.0192) = 0.769 hours... or 46.2 minutes
Answer the question?
2006-10-04 10:54:56 · answer #3 · answered by mdawne2 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it rather is a not common question. There are baby labour rules and jurisdictional adjustments. as quickly as upon a time young ones might commence in coal mines on the ripe previous age of seven. according to probability community learn would desire to be achieved on it.
2016-10-15 12:48:24 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
.769230276923 HOURS OF VACATION PER WEEK.
2006-10-04 10:53:16 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
trying to get your homework done?
2006-10-04 10:48:17 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋