suppose some people succeed in getting a sale letter and reciept of my car signed by me forcibly and they also get the signs of some witnesses on these documents in the same manner. what is my legal stand?will not these document stand against me in court? how will i prove my innosence?
2006-10-04 09:49:37 · 5 answers · asked by sufiesidhi 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Consent taken by coersion, fraud, misrepresentation, undue influence, force, by mistake, etc are not valid in law. If you can prove that your sign was forcibly taken then those sign will hold no validity under law.
2006-10-09 18:26:12 · answer #1 · answered by King of the Net 7 · 4⤊ 0⤋
You would have to claim, and prove, coercion. It does happen. One crucial piece of evidence would be a track on the money, which was never paid over. Why did these people not have transactions in their bank accounts, or a loan, for example.
2006-10-04 09:52:20 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
After reading your question i can only presume you are still to frightened to put your true feelings into words that would express what really happened to you. I would suggest a good attorney who specializes in deciphering questionable contract questions.
2006-10-12 09:39:56 · answer #3 · answered by daydoom 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Perhaps you only think you were coerced...I feel that way when ever i go to a dealership to buy a car, or truck!
2006-10-04 09:58:26 · answer #4 · answered by battle-ax 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
take everyone to court that was forced to sign these papers, and you should have no problems.
2006-10-11 17:01:58 · answer #5 · answered by black jack 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋