What is the probability of rollinjg a MULTIPLE of 3 on a die and then tossing a coin and having HEADS land up?
a) 1/8 b) 1/6 c) 1/4 d) 2/3
I thought it was 1/12... But that isn't a choice. So can you help?
2006-10-04 08:47:15 · 8 answers · asked by ♥ 6 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
Probability of rolling a multiple of 3 is 1/3, since the only choices are 3 and 6.
Probability of tossing a coin and getting heads is 1/2.
Probability of both is therefore 1/3*1/2=1/6, choice b.
2006-10-04 08:49:37 · answer #1 · answered by James L 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, you have to combine the two events before adding up possibilities.
You know there are 6 possibilities on a die roll. There are 2 multiples fo 3 on a standard die. So, you know that there is a 2/6 or 1/3 chance of rolling a multiple of 3.
Now, consider that there are 12 possible combinations with a die and a coin. 1 through 6 + heads, and 1 through 6 plus tails. You still have two multiples of 3.
So, you've got 2/12 which is equal to 1/6.
2006-10-04 09:08:54 · answer #2 · answered by Privratnik 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is the 'and' rule in probability
For that you have to multiply the two results
the probability of geting a multiple of 3 is 1/3 ( 3 and 6 are multiples, goes to 2/6 which cancels to 1/3)
the probability of getting heads is 1 out of 2 (1/2)
so we multiply: 1/3 x 1/2
= 1/6
2006-10-04 08:52:05 · answer #3 · answered by benabean87 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The answer is b) 1/6
The odds of a multiple of 3 on a die is 2/6( 3 and 6)
the odds of a heads on a coin flip is 1/2
multiply them and you get 2/12 or 1/6
2006-10-04 08:52:03 · answer #4 · answered by krafto8 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are 6 possible outcomes on a die with 2 that are multiples of 3 (3 and 6). The p(die)=2/6
p(coin)=1/2
p(die)*p(coin) = 2/6*1/2 = 1/6 ===> b
2006-10-04 08:50:27 · answer #5 · answered by T 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1/6
Multiples of 3 on a die are 3,6. Thus probability = 2/6 or 1/3
Probability of heads on a fair coin = 1/2
Since these probabilites are independent, you can get the total probability by multiplying them together.
(1/2)*(1/3) = 1/6
2006-10-04 08:49:55 · answer #6 · answered by JSAM 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Those answers are all too complicated; here's a simple one.
A multiple of 3 has a 1/3 chance of landing.
Doing something that's 1/2 likely right after would make it half of 1/3...
Which is 1/6: answer B
Hope this helps
Good luck. :-)
2006-10-04 08:58:32 · answer #7 · answered by Jim Jones 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the answer is type of one million/2 the area of the large circle is a million/2 pi x (radius squared)= 1256.637 the area of the sq. is 25*25= 625 so 625/1256.637 can provide you the risk
2016-12-04 06:39:55 · answer #8 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋