lim x->0 cos(x)/x=1
2006-10-04 08:24:56 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
False
2006-10-04 08:26:06 · answer #1 · answered by sacharose 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
surely False
2006-10-04 15:32:57 · answer #2 · answered by Firefly 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
False.
Use d'Alembert's method - you take the derviative of the top and the derivative of the bottom so you are left with:
lim x ->0 -sin(x) / 1
Which is zero.
So the statement is false.
2006-10-04 15:29:48 · answer #3 · answered by badger 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
False:
cos(0)=1 so limx--->0 cos(x)/x=1/0=infinity.
2006-10-04 15:29:19 · answer #4 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
false
2006-10-04 15:41:30 · answer #5 · answered by rameezaali 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
false
2006-10-04 15:27:18 · answer #6 · answered by Fabe 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
false
2006-10-04 15:26:44 · answer #7 · answered by xrionx 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Use L'Hospitol's rule:
Take dTop over dBottom:
Lim x->0 of Sin(x)/1 = 1.
So, true.
2006-10-04 15:28:37 · answer #8 · answered by tbolling2 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋
TRUE!
Prove me that I am wrong! I just got out of my Calculus class!
2006-10-04 15:44:26 · answer #9 · answered by gilberts55 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
differentiate the numerator and denominator and plug in 0 for x and see what you get... that's your answer
2006-10-04 15:30:29 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋