2006-10-03 17:18:17 · 5 answers · asked by dewgongoo 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
The domain is from negative infinity to positive infinity. x can take on any real value.
The range of cos x is from -1 to +1, so the range of abs(cos x) is 0 to 1.
2006-10-03 17:23:42 · answer #1 · answered by ? 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
You left sufficient... (this is a classic line from the movie The Hustler) The area refers back to the set of cost for x which will supply a genuine result on your function for h(x). (you're able to say 'y' , in case you desire.) The operative concept is that the cost(s) you employ could come from the set of REALS. Now, ask your self, are there any cost of x that may not supply a genuine answer for this function ? Will destructive 10 paintings ? are you able to discover the sq. root of -10 ? ?(-10) Is it genuine ? Are you getting the belief ? once you have desperate the area (x-values), then you particularly could be sure what the fee of the function could be for all those inputs. In different words, what's the variety for h(x) ? some applications, like countless polynomials have domain names and stages that are continually the set of all Reals. yet different applications, like radical applications and rational algebraic applications, have regulations on the area and/or variety. seem on your e book for some greater help. Ask your instructor. good success.
2016-10-18 11:08:02 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The domain is the set of numbers for which a function gives a value result.
The range of cos(x) is -1 to +1, so what is the range of |cos(x)|?
2006-10-03 17:23:46 · answer #3 · answered by arbiter007 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
domain = -inf to +inf as cos x is defined for all x so is abs cos x
range = 0 to 1 as range of cos x = -1 to 1
2006-10-03 17:24:31 · answer #4 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
domain: all real numbers
range: [0,1]
2006-10-03 17:24:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋