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2006-10-03 15:31:18 · 3 answers · asked by nataliya2107 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

As mathematician would say homework! Here is a hint though, if the group is cyclic then there is an element a such that any b in the group is of the form a^m for some m. Now think about what you know if you multiply powers of a single element.

2006-10-03 16:02:13 · answer #1 · answered by firat c 4 · 0 0

If G is cyclic, then at least one of its elements generates the whole group, that is, G has an element g (the generator) such that for any element a of G, there is an integer n such that a = g^n.
So let a and b be any two elements of G. Then there are integers n and m such that a = g^n and b = g^m, and
ab = (g^n)(g^m) = g^(n + m) = g^(m + n) = (g^m)(g^n) = ba.
Thus G is abelian.

2006-10-03 23:19:33 · answer #2 · answered by wild_turkey_willie 5 · 1 0

recall what it means for a group to be cyclic
it means that the group can be generated by a single element

let our cyclic group be G = [a] (a is then referred to as a generator of the group)

then G is the group of all a^k with k an integer
..., a^-2, a^-1, e, a^1, a^2, ....

so let x, y be elements of G
then x = a^m and y = a^n with m and n integers

so determine xy and yx and show that xy=yx

[and your proof would be done since x,y are any arbitrary elements from G]

2006-10-03 23:33:34 · answer #3 · answered by xkey 3 · 0 0

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