There are two versions of this, lol.
The first one is that he convinced them that he would make a trade route to India so they would go directly to the source and get the spices and such for cheaper--whereas once they got on the Silk Road, traders kept upping the prices, so by the time it came to Europe, it was pretty expensive. This is supposed to be the right answer, except you could go into more detail about the Silk Road.
The disputed version is that Columbus and Queen Isabella were messing around. But I don't know, I think it's just a joke history teachers pass around to each other. =)
2006-10-03 14:32:05
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Claim to new lands. The Americas were claimed by Columbus in the name of Spain for it's sole benefit.
2006-10-03 22:10:49
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answer #2
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answered by papershadows 2
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There is some evidence that Columbus was of Jewish decent. Spain had passed laws that required all Jews to leave Spain.
I don't know the full story but he evidently had some access to the King and Queen and they financed his trip to get him away from Spain safely.
How true this story is I cannot say, but I remember hearing it from a good source.
2006-10-03 21:34:23
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answer #3
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answered by pinelake302 6
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The end of Spain's war with the Muslims in North Africa
2006-10-03 21:25:13
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answer #4
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answered by fat_american 2
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Do your own homework, lol, it'll take a lot less time to read the assignment than it would to type out all the questions. Besides, we can't learn for you, as I just said in your other howmework question.
2006-10-03 21:23:06
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answer #5
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answered by Mike G 3
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I believe it was to be a route to the East Indies, full of spices and untold riches,
2006-10-03 21:25:18
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answer #6
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answered by magpie 6
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Riches.
2006-10-03 21:23:21
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answer #7
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answered by mrpolk 2
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To boldly go where no Man had gone before.
2006-10-03 21:48:33
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answer #8
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answered by ? 5
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The quest to discover, and conquer new land.The desire for more power.
2006-10-03 21:24:51
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answer #9
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answered by ambrosia d 2
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