2006-10-03 08:24:38 · 14 answers · asked by hotspur20032 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
King Philip sent a Spanish-led naval Armada against England in 1588 as a way of ending the conflict that had been simmering between the two countries since 1585. This was based on Protestant-Catholic rivalry, economic competition centred on cross-Atlantic trade and New World bullion, and England's intervention on behalf of the United Provinces (part of Holland) against Spanish rule. The Armada failed spectacularly, and in the process propelled Sir Francis Drake into everlasting fame.
2006-10-03 08:49:38 · answer #1 · answered by Samuel O 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
King Phillip II of Spain played a major role in English history at the time of the Tudors. King Phillip had been married to Mary I and was a staunch Catholic. It was the quarrel between Phillip of Spain and Queen Elizabeth I that led to the Spanish Armada being sent to England. Phillip of Spain was a very powerful emperor, his lands spreading not only throughout Spain but also throughout much of Europe: his inheritance being much of Holland, Austria and other parts of the 'Low Countries'
2006-10-03 09:14:58 · answer #2 · answered by Tabbyfur aka patchy puss 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
That was the Spanish Armada. Henry VIII, Elizabeth I's father, had divorced Catherine of Aragon, who was part of the Spanish royal family, and renounced the Catholic church. Their daughter, Mary I of England (aka, Bloody Mary), briefly reigned as queen, but was deposed, and Elizabeth took the throne. Mary had tried to reinstate Catholicism, but the Church of England came back into power under Elizabeth. Spanish navy was the strongest in the world at the time, so the king of Spain tried to attack Elizabeth and once again make England a Catholic nation. Unfortunately, he had very bad luck. The weather in the channel was so bad that it divided his navy and either drove many of them ashore or crippled them. Also, some of the rations for the sailors were spoiled, making them ill.
2006-10-03 09:45:44 · answer #3 · answered by cross-stitch kelly 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Phillip of Spain also once held the title "King" in England as Queen Mary Tudor gave him this title during their marriage. The television drama about Elizabeth I starring Glenda Jackson showed him saying "I was King there once".
2006-10-03 21:45:45 · answer #4 · answered by David P 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sent the Armada to invade England and reassert Catholic dominance in Europe. This was partly, but not totally, caused by Queen Elizabeth's actions against Queen Mary and her unwillingness to marry a Catholic.
2006-10-03 09:12:36 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Mary, the daughter of Catherine of Aragon married the King of Spain, Philip. She wasn't deposed, she died.
2006-10-03 19:58:10 · answer #6 · answered by cymry3jones 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In 1588? I would guess Elizabeth I. They had some issues, one being that she wouldn't marry him and the second being that she was not allowing the Catholic religion to be publicly practised in England. That and I don't think he liked the crown commission piracy.
2006-10-03 08:30:04 · answer #7 · answered by Constant_Traveler 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
precisely: it really is homework, and we do not opt for to furnish human beings solutions to their homework. yet imagine: what faith did the total mass of Spaniards be conscious on the time (or perhaps at present)? And who became the chief of that faith?
2016-11-26 01:02:02 · answer #8 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He tricked her, he licked the palm of his hand but actually slapped her across the face with the dry, back of his hand.
I'm not a historian but worth a shot
2006-10-03 08:32:23 · answer #9 · answered by Icarus 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
yes and your question is? cause that's a statement!
it was queen Elizabeth I and it was because she cut of Mary queen of Scots head for being a Catholic,
does that help
2006-10-03 08:29:31 · answer #10 · answered by rossminton2002 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋