English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

if i have a 1/3 (33.33%) chance of being correct and a 2/5 (40%) chance of being correct how do you calculate what my actual chance of being correct is?

2006-10-03 08:11:29 · 6 answers · asked by Jewish Girl891 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

You can't have two different probabilities of being right. You need to explain the problem further.

2006-10-03 09:12:52 · answer #1 · answered by charlie 2 · 0 0

There are more then one way to do this, but they are all basically along the same line. This is the simplest way!

Start by multiplying them out to make them even. Then divide them by two. (because there are two of them, if there were three, divided them by three)

The first part is to make them even so you can work with both; the second part is to find the average.

So the math would look like:

5 X 1
5 X 3
+
3 X 2
3 X 5
=
5/15 + 6/15 = 11/15

Then

(11/15)/2
Or 11 over 15 divided by 2

Now find the answer.

You can do this with very large numbers too.

As I said, there are other ways to do it, but this is the easiest.

I hope that made sense and i remembered right!

2006-10-03 15:38:42 · answer #2 · answered by Nevada Girl 1 · 0 0

The average between fractions:
(1/3 + 2/5)/2 = (5/15 +6/15)/2

(11/15) / 2 = 11/15 * 1/2 = 11/30

Or in decimals .366667 or 36%

I hope that helps.

2006-10-03 15:17:19 · answer #3 · answered by psychogator 3 · 0 0

you cannot have a 1/3 chance and a 2/5ths chance at the same thing -- but the average of the fractions are

1/3 = 5/15ths
2/5t = 6/15ths
-----------------------
11/30ths

2006-10-03 15:19:50 · answer #4 · answered by stopoverbidding 2 · 0 0

Hi. Multiply .333... times .4 if they are consecutive probabilities.

2006-10-03 15:16:52 · answer #5 · answered by Cirric 7 · 0 0

yes... that would be correct

2006-10-03 15:13:05 · answer #6 · answered by brittenybryant 1 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers