!. Christopher Columbus though an Italian was actually working for Queen Isabel ( ? ) of Spain when he discovered ( first the West Indies , then ) the New World or the continent we know of today as North America .
( Which is incidentally named after Amerrigo Vespucci , who as any bright and intelligent Glaswegian 9 year old worth their weight in humour knows , he was the first Italian ever to conquer all of the massive and raging seas as he sailed around Scicily , no wait a minute maybe that was the world )
2. ( powers ? ) Greed !
Lust for power over territory , never mind the original inhabitants of those territories / lands !
3. As per answer # 2 .
4. With humongous ammounts of pain , disease and rampant death for probably millions of them over hundreds of years ,which some of these peoples are continuing to suffer from in this year 2006 how many years is that since 1492 !
( Need human tragedy examples , check out what is going on in the rain forests , any rain forests , and if any sense , past , present or future is to be made out of what is presently happening in Darfur and if it is being adequately taken care of in a useful and timely mannner perhaps it might have been called or will be known of in the future as " Therefore " ) !
2006-10-03 09:22:06
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answer #1
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answered by onesnowshoe 2
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Before Columbus found the West Indies, all the trades and goods went through Italy, which was closer to Asia. England and Spain had the most difficult access to this East-West trade line.
Spain was the only country that Columbus was able to convince that there was a shorter path to Asia. Spain financed Columbus. When the new world was found, it was easiest for Spain, then England to get to it.
In 16th century and onward, and just prior to the invention of airplanes, controlling the oceans gave you power because the sea is how you transported goods between continents. To have successful trading companies that paid taxes to their respective countries, they also needed protection from other countries and pirates.
In simple terms, money/wealth motivated them, but it was geography that enabled Spain and England to become just colonial powers -- which is also their similarity.
The resulting colonies naturally reflect the cultures of Spain and England. Spain was dominantly Catholic and established missions. The colonies and missions went hand in hand. The colonies setup by England, on the other hand, wasn't as much religious as they were people wanting a new start. The colonists brought with them their way of life.
Of course, this is very generalized and simplified, but should provide the basics.
2006-10-03 08:25:57
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answer #2
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answered by errant_hero 4
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Ok, there is a process all emerging nations had to experience to reach the point they were powerful enough to colonize. As Europe began to emerge from the dark ages, many changes took place. Disease dropped, the population increased, a "middle/merchant" class grew, agricultural capability increased, parliaments and assemblies formed, and slowly, governemnts began to central. All European nations would go through these changes at different times. Spain just happened to emerge first under Ferdiand and Isabella. As a strong centralized nation with support from the wealthy and merchant class, and the assemblies, they were more capable to go out into the world exploring. \England wouldn't reach this point until much later. Spain arrives in the new world in 1492, England won't arrive permanently until 1603. Spain had 111 year head start.
The wealth spain discovered in the new world made it rich fast. The gold and precious metal so of the Aztecs, Incans and Mayans made them super rich.
England, later as she began to centralize tried to share in Spain's wealth by marrying into the Spanish royal family, Henry VIII married Catherine of Aragon. Later, Elizabeth simply had pirates still from the spanish on the high seas. Eventually England became quite powerful herself - and rich from stealing- and was prepared to make her own voyages to the new world.
They were similar in that they sought riches. Really, after that, they did things differently. The Spanish came to embrace the indians as necessary to life in the new world. The english just wanted rid of the indians if they didn't convert to christianity and become like the white people. Does this help?
2006-10-03 09:32:52
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answer #3
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answered by main street guy 2
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Ahh I did that too. Meddle immediatly after The Wall. I suppose The Wall is first-rate performed whilst looking the film, however i believe you that there are plenty of fillers (Is there Anybody Out There?, Vera, Empty Spaces, Goodbye Blue Sky, Goodbye Cruel World, Bring the Boys Back Home and so on.. Which is why you wish to have the film to head together with it. I love the commencing of the album and the tip of the album even though, and the way it's cyclical. I discover that I am listening from In the Flesh? up till Mother. Then Young Lust to One of My Turns. Then Hey You. But then as soon as i placed on Comfortably Numb i on the whole simply conclude up the album (after i bypass the exhibit have to pass on). and for a few unusual cause The Trial is one in all my favorites...
2016-08-29 08:38:04
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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in 1492 a spanish fleet "discovered" the new world.
both went on to colonize this new wold, however they basically just moved the old world problems to a new place.
They both forced out and murdered the native people of the lands
The English kept most of the same laws and culture, as did the spanish.
2006-10-03 08:13:34
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answer #5
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answered by J-Rod on the Radio 4
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At the time of this, Spain was a major naval power, while England kind of flopped about.
it wasn;t until the defeat of the Spanish Armada that England took control of the seas
2006-10-03 08:11:02
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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