There are many ways of proving this, as other answerers have shown. The most compact method is to consider the possible values of p^2 mod 24.
If p is odd, then p^2 = 1 mod 8. If p = 1 or 2 mod 3, then p^2 = 1 mod 3. Therefore p^2 = 1 mod 24 for all p, whether prime or composite, which are not multiples of 2 or 3 - this is from the "Chinese Remainder Theorem".
Therefore for primes p and q greater than 3, p^2 = q^2 = 1 mod 24, thus p^2 - q^2 = 0 mod 24, which may also be written 24 | (p^2 - q^2) as requested.
2006-10-03 09:36:25
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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p²-q²=(p-q)(p+q). Since p and q are greater then 3, both of them are odd numbers and therefore their sum and difference are even. Furthermore, p+q and p-q differ by 2q. Suppose that neither (p+q) nor (p-q) were divisible by 4 - then since both of them are even, that means that they are both congruent to 2 mod 4 and thus their difference, 2q, is divisible by 4. However, q is odd and therefore 2q cannot be a multiple of 4. Thus we have that at least one of (p-q) and (p+q) are divisible by four, and the other is divisible by two, ergo their product, (p²-q²), is divisible by eight.
Now, since both p and q are primes greater than 3, neither is divisible by it. Thus, either p ≡ 1 mod 3 or p ≡ 2 mod 3, and in either case p² ≡ 1 mod 3. Similarly, q² ≡ 1 mod 3. It follows then that p² - q² ≡ 0 mod 3 and that p²-q² is divisible by 3.
Since p²-q² is divisible by 8 and 3, it must also be divisible by the least common multiple of 8 and 3, which is 24. Thus, 24|p²-q². Q.E.D.
2006-10-03 08:22:03
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answer #2
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answered by Pascal 7
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The prime numbers greater than 3 is 5 and7
Let p=7 and q =5
24/(p^2-q^2)=24/(7^2-5^2)
=24/(49-25)=24/24 =1
2006-10-03 08:27:42
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answer #3
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answered by Amar Soni 7
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I would simplify pascal's argument that p^2 - q^2 is divisible by 8 by noting that since p is prime,
p ≡1, 3, 5, 7 mod 8
p^2 ≡ 1, 1, 1, 1 mod 8
so p^2 - q^2 ≡0 mod 8
2006-10-03 08:53:19
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answer #4
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answered by Joe C 3
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p^2-q^2=(p+q)(p-q)
p+q and p-q are both even numbers so
4|p^2-q^2
now we need to see why P^2-q^2 is divisible
by another 2 and a 3.
p+q=2n
p-q=2m
which means that p=n+m, and q=n-m
now, p is odd, so one of the two, n or m, has to be even and the other one odd.
nm is also divisible by 2,
then
p^2-q^2=4nm is divisible by 8.
Now we need just to check why it is also divisible by 3.
p, and q have residues 1 or 3 modulo 3,
p^2=1 mod 3, and q^2=1 mod 3,
so p^2-q^2 =0 mod 3
i.e.,
3|p^2-q^2
2006-10-03 08:10:31
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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a prime number >3 is of the form 6k+1 or 6k + 5
p^2- q^2 is (p+q)(p-q)
1) both are of the form 6k+/-1 6m+/-m)
p^2-q^2 = 36k^2+/-12k-(36m^2+/-12m)
= 12k(3k+/-1) - 12m(3m+/-1)
for 6k+1 it is + else it is - so all 4 combinations are covered
if k is even 1st part is divisible by 12* 2 else 3k+/-1 is even then again by 24
similarly for the second part.
so difference is divisible by 24
QED
2006-10-04 00:18:34
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answer #6
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answered by Mein Hoon Na 7
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