I thought the ball had to cross the goal line? I heard them mentioning something about it but I didn't quite understand the reasoning.
2006-10-03 06:35:18 · 8 answers · asked by ServiceVille.Com 1 in Sports ➔ Football (American)
Because the NFL likes McNabb, and will bend over backward for him.
2006-10-03 06:37:37 · answer #1 · answered by Leader Desslok 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
only the ball has to break the plane of the goal line prior to a player's knees touching the ground. So, a player can actually score without either foot being in the endzone
2006-10-03 13:39:23 · answer #2 · answered by choppercam1 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not a single body part has to cross/touch the goal line...only thing that matters is if the Ball breaks/crosses the plain...the plain is the 10 yard section not the white goal line but the actual green or what ever color endzone area....
Broc
2006-10-03 13:38:42 · answer #3 · answered by mr.broc 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The ball doesn' t have to cross the goal line. It only has to break the plane of the goal line.
2006-10-03 13:36:59 · answer #4 · answered by toff 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am an Eagles and McNabb fan. I was watching highlights of the game today because I was there last night, and it didn't look like he was in. Even without it, the Eagles would win so, who cares!!
2006-10-03 21:21:22 · answer #5 · answered by goofnwfy 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know but I'm an Eagles fan so I'll take it.
2006-10-03 14:03:53 · answer #6 · answered by ps 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Leader Desslok is as right as can be.
2006-10-03 15:48:15 · answer #7 · answered by stan l 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is the problem, you are thinking instead of knowing.
2006-10-03 22:39:27 · answer #8 · answered by smitty 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋